Đề thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 lớp 10 THPT chuyên môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2015-2016

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Đề thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 lớp 10 THPT chuyên môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2015-2016
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
—————
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
(Đề thi có 03 trang)
KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Dành cho tất cả các thí sinh 
Thời gian làm bài 90 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.
—————————
PART A: PRONUNCIATION, VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
 1. A. germ	B. regular	C. category	D. pagoda
 2. A. buses	B. speeches	C. noses	D. leaves
 3. A. income	B. campus	C. century	D. comic
 4. A. now	B. know	C. flow	D. row
 5. A. deny	B. poetry	C. hobby	D. primary
II. Complete each of the following sentences by choosing the best option A, B, C or D.
 6. Please accept my warmest______ on your engagement.
	A. congratulated	B. congratulations	C. congratulating	D. congratulate
 7. Hoa: “We are going on a trip to Ha Long Bay next week!” 
 Nam: “Really? ______!”
	A. Have a nice time	B. It's your pleasure	C. Take your time	D. Good luck
 8. A few days ago Tom's car______ by one of the teenagers in his neighborhood.
	A. was stealing	B. was stolen	C. has been stolen	D. was stole
 9. Are you interested______ pop music?
	A. on	B. in	C. of	D. with
 10. The music at the party yesterday was very loud and______ from far away.
	A. could hear	B. can be heard	C. could be heard	D. can hear
 11. If only I______ how to operate a computer as you do!
	A. would know	B. knew	C. known	D. should know
 12. His parents wouldn't let him marry anyone______ family was poor.
	A. of whom	B. of whose	C. whom	D. whose
 13. Jeff wanted to know______.
	A. why were his friends laughing	B. that why were his friends laughing
	C. why his friends were laughing	D. the reason why his friends laughing
 14. Peter: “How many______ can you speak?”
	John: “Only Arabic and English.”
	A. conversations	B. speeches	C. communications	D. languages
 15. You're going to study abroad, ______?
	A. aren't you	B. do you	C. are you	D. don't you
 16. He came to the party ______ he hadn't been invited.
	A. even	B. despite	C. although	D. in spite of
 17. Mr. Hawk told me that he would give me his answer the______ day.
	A. following	B. previous	C. before	D. last
 18. The Internet also has______. It is not only time-consuming and costly but also dangerous because of viruses and bad programs.
	A. advantages	B. limitations	C. purposes	D. benefits
 19. If we______ hard, we will make this beach a clean and______ place again.
	A. works/ beautiful	B. work/ beautiful	C. works/ beautifully	D. work/ beautifully
 20. An: “Let's go to the new movie down town.”
	Nam: “Thanks, but I______ it already.”
	A. ever seen	B. had seen	C. saw	D. have seen
 21. It really annoys me when people forget______ "Thank you".
	A. said	B. to saying	C. to say	D. saying
 22. Most of the children in my village enjoy______ in the afternoon.
	A. playing the football	B. to play football	C. to play the football	D. playing football
 23. "I think I've lost my new pen. I've______ it everywhere but I can't find it anywhere."
	A. looked after	B. turned on	C. looked for	D. turned off
 24. We have lived in this town______ 1998.
	A. in	B. ago	C. since	D. for
 25. Vietnam, ______ is in the south-east Asia, exports rice.
	A. that	B. who	C. which	D. whom
 26. Did she______ to be your next door neighbor?
	A. use	B. used	C. uses	D. using
 27. Everyone wears a uniform and so______.
	A. are you	B. you are	C. you do	D. do you
 28. Everyone was exhausted and hungry, ______ they sat down under the tree and had a snack.
	A. so	B. so that	C. since	D. because of
 29. Peter: “Do you mind if I take a seat?”
	Mary: “______.”
	A. No, do as you please	B. Yes, I don't mind	C. Yes, do as you please	D. No, I mind
 30. Don't make noise. My mother______ with her friends.
	A. is talking	B. talks	C. was talking	D. talked
III. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that is incorrect in each of the following sentences.
 31. Since our flight was delayed, we decided taking a long walk around the terminal.
	A. was delayed	B. Since	C. taking	D. decided
 32. I will lend you this money if you will promise to pay it back.
	A. if	B. this money	C. will promise	D. will lend
 33. Would you mind to show me your passport, sir?
	A. me	B. Would	C. to show	D. passport
 34. My daughter wishes she were taller and that her hair will be blond and curly.
	A. will be	B. were taller	C. wishes	D. blond and curly
 35. She asked me where did I lived.
	A. asked	B. did I	C. where	D. lived
IV. Put the words in brackets into correct forms.
36. Although there are many______ (CELEBRATE) throughout the year, Tet or the Lunar New Year holiday is the most important one for Vietnamese people.
37. The eruption of Mount Pinatubo is the world’s______ (LARGE) ever volcanic eruption.
38. Computers were a wonderful______ (INVENT) at the time. 
39. Malaysia has______ (TROPIC) climate.
40. This singer is not very pretty but she sings very______. (BEAUTIFUL)
PART B: READING
I. Complete the passage by choosing the best option A, B, C or D to fill in each blank.
	Television is (1)______ form of entertainment in the American household. People of (2)______ ages use this medium to entertain themselves for an average of four hours a day. Thus, television has had a tremendous influence (3)______ its viewers, especially children. Scientists now say that children can be negatively affected by constantly (4)______ television. This is due to the fact that they participate less in physical activities, spend (5)______ time reading and studying, and see a world of violence that can affect their own feelings of security. 
 1. A. the more popular	B. most popular	C. more popular	D. the most popular
 2. A. all	B. no	C. every	D. each
 3. A. in	B. of	C. from	D. on
 4. A. being watched	B. to watch	C. watching	D. watch
 5. A. less	B. few	C. more	D. much
II. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions.
I was born in Newcastle, a city in the North East of England. Newcastle is on the bank of the River Tyne. It is a quite big city of about 200,000 inhabitants. There is a cathedral and a university. There are five bridges over the River Tyne, which link Newcastle to the next town, Gateshead, where there is one of the biggest shopping centres in the world, the Metro Centre. 
A few years ago, the main industries were shipbuilding and coalmining, but now the chemical and soap industries are important.
I moved from Newcastle ten years ago but I often return. I miss the people, who are so warm and friendly, and I miss the wild, beautiful countryside near the city, where there are so many hills and streams. 
 6. Newcastle has______.
	A. one of the biggest shopping centres	B. a wild, beautiful countryside
	C. only one bridge that links it to the next town	D. a population of about 200,000 people
 7. According to the passage, the writer______.
	A. has never returned to Newcastle	B. has come back to live in Newcastle
	C. is still living in Newcastle	D. doesn't live in Newcastle any more
 8. Which of the following is NOT true about Newcastle?
	A. It is next to Gateshead.	B. It has a cathedral and a university.
	C. Its main industry now is shipbuilding.	D. Its people are friendly.
 9. Newcastle is______.
	A. a small town in England	B. a city in the North of England
	C. a city in the North East of England	D. a city near the North East of England
 10. Gateshead has one of______ in the world.
	A. the most beautiful countrysides	B. the largest rivers
	C. the most important shipbuilding industries	D. the biggest shopping centres
III. Complete the passage by filling in each blank with ONE suitable word.
	Helen is the only child of a farmer. She thinks living in the countryside is better (11)__than__ living in a big city. Every day she runs about (12)__in__ the open air. Her parents (13)__take__ good care of farm animals. They don’t earn (14)__much_ money – just about $ 500 per month – but they feel happy. There is not much noise or pollution. The air here is fresh and clean. How peaceful the country life (15)_is__!
PART C: WRITING
I. Rewrite the sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the original one.
I started to learn English four years ago.
I have _______________________________________________________.
We should do something about the air pollution.
Something ___________________________________________________.
“I am taking my French exam tomorrow,” Mary said.
Mary said ____________________________________________________.
If you don’t work harder, you won’t pass the coming exam.
Unless _______________________________________________________.
Although he drove carefully, he crashed his car.
Despite ______________________________________________________.
II. Paragraph writing
Write a paragraph of 100-120 words about what you like doing during your summer holiday.
THE END -
 SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
—————
(Hướng dẫn chấm có 02 trang)
KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Dành cho tất cả các thí sinh 
—————————
PART A: PRONUNCIATION, VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (6 điểm: 0.15 điểm/ 1 câu)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others (0.75 pts.: 0.15 điểm/ 1 câu) 
01. A
 02. D
 03. C
 04. A
 05. A
II. Complete each of the following sentences by choosing the best option A, B, C or D (3.75 pts.: 0.15 điểm/ 1 câu)
1. B
 2. A
 3. B
 4. B
 5. C
6. B
 7. D
 8. C
 9. D
 10. A
11. C
 12. A
 13. B
 14. B
 15. D
16. C
 17. D
 18. C
 19. C
 20. C
21. A
 22. D
 23. A
 24. A
 25. A
III. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that is incorrect in each of the following sentences (0.75 pts.: 0.15 điểm/ 1 câu)	 
31. C
 32. C
 33. C
 34. A
 35. B
IV. Put the words in brackets into correct forms (0.75 pts.: 0.15 điểm/ 1 câu)
36. celebrations
37. largest
38. invention
39. tropical
40. beautifully
PART B: READING (2.25 điểm: 0.15 điểm/ 1 câu)
I. Complete the passage by choosing the best option A, B, C or D to fill in each blank (0.75 pts.: 0.15 điểm/ 1 câu)
1. D
 2. A
 3. D
 4. C
 5. A
II. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions (0.75 pts.: 0.15 điểm/ 1 câu)
1. D
 2. D
 3. C
 4. C
 5. D
III. Complete the passage by filling in each blank with ONE suitable word (0.75 pts.: 0.15 điểm/ 1 câu)
1. than
2. in
3. take
4. much
5. is
PART C: WRITING (1.75 điểm)
I. Rewrite the sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the original one. (0.75 pts.: 0.15 điểm/ 1 câu)
1. I have learned English for four years./been learning English for four years.
2. Something should be done about the air pollution.
3. Mary said that she was taking her French exam the next day/ following day/ the day after.
4. Unless you work harder, you won’t pass the coming exam.
5. Despite (his) driving carefully, he crashed his car./the fact that he drove carefully, he crashed his car.
II. Paragraph writing (1.0 pts.)
Write a short paragraph of at least 80 words about what you like doing during your summer holiday.
Hướng dẫn
Chấm bài theo hướng dẫn chấm.
Chi tiết hoá điểm số các ý (nếu có) phải đảm bảo không sai lệch với tổng điểm mỗi ý và được thống nhất trong hội đồng chấm thi.
Không làm tròn điểm.
Hướng dẫn cụ thể
Tiêu chí
Mô tả chi tiết
Điểm
Nội dung
Viết đúng chủ đề (chỉ cần viết đúng câu chủ đề)
Viết logic, hợp lí
0,3
0,2
Ngôn ngữ
Đúng cấu trúc ngữ pháp
Sử dụng từ vựng phù hợp, phong phú
0,2
0,1
Trình bày
Viết đủ số từ theo qui định
Mạch lạc, rõ ràng, có ý sáng tạo
0,1
0,1
Tổng
1,0 
Cách tính lỗi: - 01 lỗi ngữ pháp (cấu trúc, từ vựng) trừ 0,05
 - 01 lỗi chính tả trừ 0,01
 - Viết ít hơn số từ qui định trừ 0,1
	 - Viết nhiều hơn số từ qui định không trừ điểm.

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