Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT chuyên - Năm học 2018-2019 - Đề 1

SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
ĐỀ THAM KHẢO
(Đề thi gồm 05 trang)
KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH 10 CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2018-2019
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 
(Dành cho học sinh THPT chuyên Anh và chuyên Pháp)
Thời gian thi: 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
PART I. LISTENING
Section 1: Listen and tick (ü) the box (10 points). There is one example.
00. Which is Bill’s uncle?
 A B C
01. Which is Sally’s baby cousin?
 A B C
02. What’s Fred doing after school?
 A B C
03. What did Paul do in the holiday?
 A B C
04. Which clown did Anna see?
 A B C
05. Where’s Jim’s DVD games?
 A B C
Section 2. Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.
(10 points)
BUSINESS NATIONWIDE
Courses available:
Name of Course:
(00) Getting Started
Time:
Two hours from (6pm – 8pm)
Cost:
Free
Course Content:
Is starting a business right for me?
Writing a (06)_________________
Some legal issues
Nearest Location:
Handbridge
Next Course Date:
20th March
Name of Course:
 Business Basics
Length of course:
(07)_______________________
Cost:
£80 or £20 for recently unemployed
Course Content:
Day One: Legal Issues
Day Two: Marketing and Pricing
Day Three: Accounting and (08) _______________
Nearest Location:
Renton
Next Course Date:
5th March or (09)________________
CALLER’S DETAILS
Name:
Lila Park
Address:
39 White Lane, Eastleigh
email:
(10)____________________
PART II. PHONETICS
Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5 points)
11. A. address
B. confusion
C. device 
D. article 
12. A. photogenic
B. disabled
C. exhibition
D. volunteer
13. A. announce
B. typical
C. gradually
D. attitude
14. A. understand
B. concentrate
C. chemical 
D. access 
15. A. nation
B. women
C. allow
D. college
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10 points)
16. When I was a child, I used to___________ in that house.
A. live	B. to live	C. living	D. to living
17. I am having some days___________ tomorrow. I will visit you.
 	A. off	 	B. of	 	C. out	 	D. in
18. It___________ better if they would tell everybody in advance.
 	A. is	B. will be	C. would be	D. were
19. Washing machines, dishwashers and vacuum cleaners are___________.
	A. working machines	B. useless machines	C. sewing machines 	D. labour-saving machine
20. Do you know the man_________ next to our teacher?
 	A. standing	B. stood	C. stand	D. to stand
21. Hoa and Quan quarreled_________ each other sometime.
 	A. in	 	B. at	 	 C. with	 	D. by 
22. “Where do you live now?” 	– “I live in Hanoi; my__________.
A. parents too do 	B. parents do 	C. parents do, too 	D. parents also do.
23. A number of students___________ volunteered to the job. 
A .having 	B. has 	C.to have 	D. have
24. My classmate told me to watch movies in English___________ learn spoken English better.
A. so as	B. so that	C. in order that	D. in order to 
25. Amy, ___________ car had broken down, was in a very bad mood. 
A. who	B. whom	C. whose	D. that	
 II. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. (10 points)
26. I’m glad to know that you are going___________ a picnic.
27. At the moment, most of the town is being covered___________ snow.
28. In this company, everybody is responsible___________ turning off the lights before leaving.
29. The boy fell___________ the water and was drowned.
30. He suffered___________ constant sleepiness.
31. They have been absent___________ school very often lately.
32. Is she capable___________ using computers?
33. They have made use___________ the house after remodeling it.
34. They stayed___________ home because Andy wasn’t keen___________ going out in the rain.
35. I wrote the letter to complain___________ the good I bought in the shop.
III. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10 points)
36. He is engrossed in doing (SCIENCE)___________ research.
37. They entered the areas without (PERMIT)___________.
38. He wants (WIDTH)___________ his knowledge of the subject.
39. The giant panda is a(n) (DANGER)___________ species.
40. What makes the computer a (MIRACLE)___________ device?
41. You may be surprised at the large (VARIED)___________ of animals in national parks.
42. The architecture in the downtown area is a successful (COMBINE)___________ of old and new.
43. He came first in the poetry (COMPETED)___________.
44. Street noise is one of the (ADVANTAGE)___________ of living in a big city.
45. The Vietnamese government has done a lot to eliminate hunger and (POOR)___________.
PART IV. READING
I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space. (10 points)
SPRING 
When is the Spring season?
Spring is the season succeeding Winter and preceding Summer. Spring (46)________ to the season as well as to ideas of rebirth, rejuvenation, renewal, resurrection, and regrowth. During Spring an important celebration (47)________: Easter Day. It varies between March 22 and April 25 in Western (48)________, and between April 4 and May 8 in Eastern Christianity.
What happens in spring?
Spring is a time when flowers bloom and trees begin to grow and (49)________. The days grow longer and the temperature in most areas become more (50)________. You can also contemplate the melting of ice and thawing of the ground. The weather during this period becomes much sunnier while hibernating animals begin to (51)___________ of hibernation.
What to do during the Spring Season?
There are so many things to do to enjoy Spring:
Plan a holiday and (52)_________ a trip. Vacations aren't just for summer anymore!
Take a walk in a (53)_________ of flowers.
Meditate: Contemplate and (54)_________ on the beauty of nature. Forget the worries of everyday life and empty the mind. Concentrate on the sounds and the scent of nature.
Spot the things you want to change in your life. Spring is a time for (55)__________.
46. A. takes	B. has	C. means	D. refers
47. A. takes part in	B. takes note	C. takes into	D. takes place
48. A. hope	B. interest	C. tradition	D. belief
49. A. recall	B. reproduce	C. repeat	D. remove
50. A. hot	B. scorching	C. temperate	D. cold
51. A. come into	B. come after	C. come before	D. come out
52. A. make	B. take	C. have	D. get
53. A. plot	B. bunch	C. field	D. pack
54. A. reflect	B. describe	C. show	D. draw
55. A. rebuilding	B. rebirth	C. reconstruction	D. reminder
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10 points)
These stories of killer bees in the news in recent years have attracted a lot of attention as the bees have made their way from South America. Killer bees are reputed to be extremely aggressive in nature, although experts that their aggression may have been somewhat inflated. 
The killer bee is a combination of the very mild European strain of honeybee and the considerably more aggressive African bee, which was created when the African strain was imported into Brazil in 1955. The African bees were brought into Brazil because their aggression was considered an advantage: they were far more productive than their European counterparts in that they spent a higher percentage of their time working and continued working longer in inclement weather than did the European bees. 
These killer bees have been known to attack humans and animals, and some fatalities have occurred. Experts point out, however, that the mixed breed known as the killer bee is actually not at all as aggressive as the pure African bee. They also point out that the attacks have a chemical cause. A killer bee stings only when it has been disturbed; it is not aggressive by nature. However, after a disturbed bee stings and flies away; it leaves its stinger embedded in the victim. In the vicera attached to the embedded stinger is the chemical isoamyl acetate, which has an odor that attracts other bees. As other bees approach the victim of the original sting, the victim tends to panic, thus disturbing other bees and causing them to sting. The new stings create more of the chemical isoamyl acetate which attracts more bees and increases the panic level of the victim. Killer bees tend to travel in large clusters or swarms and thus respond in large numbers to the production of isoamyl acetate.
56. The subject of the paragraph before paragraph 1 was mostly likely_________.
A. the creation of the killer bee	B. the chemical nature of killer bees attacks
C. stories in the media about killer bees	D. ways of producing honey
57. The word "inflated" in paragraph 1 means_________.
A. aired	B. exaggerated	C. blown	D. burst
58. Why were African bees considered beneficial?
A. They spent their time traveling.
B. They were productive, even in inclement weather.
C. They produced an unusual type of honey.
D. They didn't work hard in inclement weather.
59. The word 'their' in paragraph 2 refers to_________.
A. the European bees'	B. the African bees'
C. the killer bees'	D. the honey bees'
60. It is stated in the passage that killer bees_________.
A. are less aggressive than African bees	B. never attacks animals
C. are more deadly than African bees	D. always attack African bees
61. The pronoun 'They' in paragraph 3 refers to_________.
A. humans and animals	B. fatalities	C. experts	D. killer bees
62. Which is NOT mentioned in the passage as a contributing factor in an attack by killer bees?
A. Panic by the victims	B. The odor of isoamyl acetate
C. Disturbance of the bees	D. Inclement weather
63. In which paragraph does the author describe the size of the groups in which killer bees move?
A. Paragraph 3	B. Paragraph 2	C. Paragraph 2 and 3	D. Paragraph 1
64. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of killer bees?
A. attack humans and animals	
B. are aggressive by nature
C. travel in large clusters
D. are a combination of European honeybee and African bee
65. The main idea of this passage is that killer bee_________.
A. are not purebred
B. have been moving unexpectedly
C. have been in the news a lot recently
D. are not as aggressive as their reputation suggests
PART V. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (15 points)
66. Tom hasn’t watched a football match for 2 months.
→ The last_____________________________________________________________.
67. “You should apply for that job. It is suitable for you.” Kevin said to me.
→ Kevin________________________________________________________________.
68. I didn’t have time so I was late.
→ If ____________________________________________________________________.
69. It is necessary to give the employee a full bonus.
 → _______________________________________________________________________.
70. What I saw in the football match surprised me .
 → I_______________________________________________________________________.
71. His second attempt on the world record was successful.
→ He broke_____________________________________________________________.
72. They were all arrested because of his incompetence.
→ Had__________________________________________________________________.
73. Please don’t smoke in the kitchen.
→ I’d rather____________________________________________________________.
74. “That’s a lovely new dress, Jean”, said her mother.
→ Jean’s mother complimented ______________________________________.
75. I don’t really like her even though I admire her achievements.
→ Much________________________________________________________________.
II. The number of people using computers is increasing rapidly. What are the benefits of a computer? 
You should write a paragraph of about 250 words on this topic. (10 points)
________THE END________
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Họ và tên thí sinh:.......; Số báo danh
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
HDC THAM KHẢO
(HDC thi gồm 01 trang)
KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH 10 CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2018-2019
HDC ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 
(Dành cho học sinh THPT chuyên Anh và chuyên Pháp)
Thời gian thi: 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
PART I: LISTENING
Section 1. (10pts) 	01. A	02. B	03. A	04. B	05.C
Section 2. (10pts) 	06. Business plan	07. 3 days	08. book keeping
09. 18th April	10. lila.park@rainbow.com
PART II. PHONETICS
Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5pts)
11. D	12. B	13. A	14. A	15. C
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)
16. A	17. A	18. B	19. D	20. A	21. C	22. C	23. D	24. D	25. C
II. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION. (10pts)
26. on	27. with	28. for	29. into	30. from
31. from	32. of	33. of	34. at – on	35. about
III. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10pts)
36. scientific      	37. permission     	38. widen  	39. endangered 
40. miraculous	41. variety	42. combination	43. competition
44. disadvantages	45. poverty
PART IV. READING
I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space. (10pts) 
46. D	47. D	48. C	49. B	50. C	51. D	52. B	53. C	54. A	55. D
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts) 
56. C	57. B	58. B	59. B	60. A	61. C	62. D	63. A	64. B	65. D
PART V. WRITING 
I. (10pts)
66. The last time Tom watched a football match was 2 months ago.
67. Kevin advised me to apply for that job.
68. If I had had time, I wouldn’t have been late.
69. It is necessary for the employee to be given a full bonus.
 (It is necessary that the employee should be given a full bonus.)
70. I was surprised at what I saw in the football match.
71. He broke the world record in his second attempt.
72. Had it not been for his incompetence, they wouldn’t have been arrested.
73. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in the kitchen.
74. Jean’s mother complimented on her new dress.
75. Much as I don’t really like her, I admire her achievements.
II. (15 points)
Marking scheme: The impression mark given is based on the following scheme: 
Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. 
____________THE END____________