Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 7 năm học 2015-2016 - Phòng GD & ĐT Huyện Sơn Dương

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC 
HUYỆN SƠN DƯƠNG 
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 7 
NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
Môn: Tiếng Anh 
Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi gồm có 07 trang)
Điểm bài thi
Giám khảo
Số phách
(Do CTHĐ chấm thi ghi)
 BẰNG SỐ
BẰNG CHỮ
1. ..............................................
..............................
2. ..............................................
Lưu ý: - Học sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi
SECTION A: LISTENING (2 pts)
I. 9 (Questions 1-5): Listen and choose the correct options to complete the sentences (1pt)
1. The girl has .... .
A. a brother
B. a younger sister
C. an older sister
D. an older brother
2. Her father is .... .
A. forty five years old	
B. not alive
C. a teacher
D. working in a big company
3. Her mother is .... .
A. so weak	
B. so strong
C. unhappy
D. happy
4. Her mother is working in .... .
A. a university
B. a school
C. a bank
D. a factory
5. The man .... .
A. has two children
B. is not married
C. lives in Manchester
D. works as a doctor
II. 9 (Questions 6-10): Listen and decide whether the statements are T or F (1 pt)
6. . The woman is British and she is going on her vacation.
7. . The thing she likes best is the beautiful sight here.
8. .. She loves the food here because it is spicy food.
9. .. She is a teacher and she works in a big school.
10. .. The man is the owner of the bank.
SECTION B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (8 pts)
I. (Questions 11-20): Choose the best answer by circling its corresponding letter A, B, C or D (2 pts)
11. This book.. to me. It’s his.
A. is not belonged
B. belongs not
C. not belongs 
D. doesn’t belong
12. “Was the competition a success?”. “Yes, ................... people took part in it than usual”.
A. more
B. fewer
C. less
D. many
13. Some people are used to.. in crowded buses, and don’t mind it at all.
A. ride
B. riding
C. rides
D. rode
14. I’m pleased that you and your family are .. .
A. good	
B. well
C. best
D. better
15. You should pay more.. in class.
A. part
B. care
C. notice
D. attention
16. There are two churches in the town and ..of them are extremely old. 
A. each 
B. all 
C. both 
D. most 
17. We need .. how many books there are on the shelf. 
A. know
B. knowing
C. to know
D. are knowing
18. Being .. the risks is the safe way to water play.
A. known
B. seen
C. told
D. aware of
19. .. coffee with milk is mine.
A. An
B. A
C. The
D. Ø
20. When I was a boy, I ...................tea to coffee.
A. prefer
B. preferred
C. prefers
D. preferring
II. (Questions 21-30): Give the correct forms of words in the brackets (2 pts)
SENTENCES
YOUR ANSWER
21. Do you think women are more careful.. than men? (drive)
21. ...............
22. There were three ... in the discussion. (participate)
22. ...............
23. It is.to advise him. He never takes anyone’s advice. (use)
23. ...............
24. Phone the ... if the lights don’t work. (electric)
24.
 ......
25. This is the biggest... in the city. (build) 
25. ................
26. There is a large.. of animals that live in Nairobi National Park. (vary) 
26. ....................
27. Artists are.. people. (create)
27. 
............................
28. Don’t eat that fruit. It is .. (poison)
28. 
........
29. Do you know what the .. for your bad behavior is? (punish)
29.
 ..........
30. Reading funny stories is an .way to relax. (enjoy)
30. 
...........
III. (Questions 31-37): Complete the following questions with the correct preposition (1,4 pts)
31. In a game of singles, two players play..each other.
32. You'll get wet if you go out..a raincoat because it is raining.
33. The students are tired..watching TV all days
34. Many people participate..jogging every morning.
35. We’d like a walk instead..riding a bike.
36. They study and listen to music..the same time.
37. Will you be home ..dinner tonight?
Write your answers here:
31......................................................
32......................................................
33..................................................
34......................................................
35......................................................
36......................................................
37......................................................
IV. (Questions 38-45): Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verb in parenthese (1,6 pts)
38. David (bear) ..after his father died.
39. I’ll bring a raincoat just in case. I hope my friends (not laugh)..at me.
40. Huong can not speak English without (make)..any mistakes.
41. Ba doesn’t like waiting. He’d rather (be) ..too early than too late.
42. John offered (do) ..the washing up.
43. Oh! That hat makes the lady (look) ..very strange.
44. Yesterday I called Tom, but I couldn’t talk to him. He (be)..out at that time.
45. Take these pills and you (feel)..better then, Long.
Write your answers here:
38...................................................
39......................................................
40.....................................................
41..................................................
44......................................................
42...................................................... 
45......................................................
43......................................................
V. (Questions 46-50): Each of the following sentences contains one error. Underline and correct it (1 pt)
46. He drinks a lot of mineral waters in a day.
46.........
47. Hoa told me that her aunt cutted her hair yesterday.
47.....
48. Many people think that teachers give students too many homework.
48........
49. In my opinion, Tam is a more lazier student than Hoa is.
49........
50. I like studying history and I find this subject very interested.
50........
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (5 pts)
I. (Questions 51-60): Read the following passage, then choose the letter (A, B, C, D) that best fits each of the blanks (2 pts) 
	British parents are always (51)..that their children spend too much time (52)..TV and not enough time doing other activities like sports and reading. A (53)..survey of people’s free time activities (54).. that young people spend about 23 hours a week in (55)..of the television set, that means over 3 hours (56).. . (57).., the average adult watches even more: 28 hours a week. Every household in the country has a TV set and over half have two or more. (58)..to the survey, people do not only sit in their living room watching TV but also watch it in the kitchen and in bed as well. 
	We can not deny that television also (59)..some negative effects especially children, because many films shown on TV contain violence, crime and other bad things. Excessive watching of TV by children has lowered (60)..results in studying at school.
51.
A.
complain
B.
complaining
C.
complains
D.
complained
52.
A.
to watch
B.
watch
C.
watching
D.
watched
53.
A.
recent
B.
recently
C.
late
D.
lately
54.
A.
show
B.
to show
C.
showing
D.
shows
55.
A.
back
B.
front
C.
side
D.
behind
56.
A.
a day
B.
a week
C.
a month
D. 
a year
57.
A. 
Surprise 
B. 
Surprised
C. 
Surprisingly
D.
To surprise 
58.
A. 
Because 
B. 
Addition
C. 
Besides
D.
According
59.
A.
have
B.
having
C.
has
D. 
had
60.
A. 
its
B. 
their
C.
his
D. 
her
II. (Questions 61-70): Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word (2 pts)
Benefits of playing sports
Firstly, playing sports can give you a healthy life and a fit body to you. You will be more active and healthier (61) .. playing sports. To illustrate, you can have a lower chance of getting a serious illness such as (62) .. attack or high blood pressure.
In other words, it increases your resistance to illness. In leisure time, you can play sports (63) .. your friends or your relatives, this not only helps you but (64) .. motivates everyone around you to take part in sports and have good (65) .. .
Furthermore, there are some (66) .. which you can play easily such as table tennis, tennis or football and after that, you feel completely relaxed or (67) .. free from your stress. Moreover, you also need to allow (68) .. encourage children to play sports, especially some outside activities such as football, basketball or volleyball to decrease the time that your children (69) .. sitting in front of computers or watching television. 
These sports can help them have endurance, quickness and even teach them how to improve team spirit and work in groups. These sports also teach them how to communicate with their teammates, and show them (70) .. active and creative they are.
Write your answers here:
61...................................................
62......................................................
63..................................................
64..................................................
65......................................................
66......................................................
67..................................................
68......................................................
69......................................................
70......................................................
III. (Questions 71-75): Read the following passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the sentence below (1 pt)
Every year students in many countries learn English. Some of these students are young children. Others are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn at school, others study by themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language, in film, on television, in the office, or among their friends. But not many are lucky enough to do that. Most people must work hard to learn another language.
Learning another language! Learning English! Why do all these people want to learn English? It is difficult to answer that question. Many boys and girls learn English at school because it is one of their subjects. They study their own language, and mathematics.... and English (In England, or America, or Australia, many boys and girls study their own language, which is English and mathematics.... and another language, perhaps French, or German, or Spanish). Many adults learn English because it is useful for their work. Teenagers often learn English for their high studies, because some of their books are in English at the college or university. Other people learn English because they want to read newspapers or magazines in English.
71. According to the writer,  .
A. only adults learn English
B. no children like learning English
C. English is only useful to teenagers
D. English is popular in much of the world
72. Many people learn English by  .
A. watching videos only
B. hearing the language in the office
C. talking with the film star
D. working hard on their lesson
73. Many boys and girls learn English because  . 
A. English can give them a job
B. it's included in their study courses
C. their parents make them
D. they have to study their own language
74. In America or Australia many school children study  .
A. English as a foreign language
B. English and Mathematics only
C. such foreign languages as French, German, and Spanish
D. their own language and no foreign language
75. Many adults learn English because  .
A. their work is useful
B. they want to go abroad
C. most of their books are in English 
D. it helps them in their work
SECTION E: WRITING (5 pts) 
I. (Questions 76-82): Rewrite each of the sentences below in such a way that its meaning is similar to that of the original one (1,4 pts)
76. It isn’t necessary for you to finish the work today.
→ You don’t......
77. There are over eight hundred stamps in Long’s collection.
→ Long’s collection......
78. How high is Big Ben Clock Tower?
→ What.........
79. Mr Thanh couldn’t enjoy the meal because of stomachache.
→ The stomachache prevented...........................................................................................................................................
80. You shouldn’t eat too much meat.
→ You’d............................................................................................................................................................................................
81. Long is a bad swimmer.
→ Long ............................................................................................................................................................................................
82. We usually wrote letters when we lived in the countryside.
→ We ..................................................................................................................................................................................................
II. (Questions 83-90): Complete the letter from the cues given, you can give any changes if it is necessary (1,6 pts)
83. Trang/ the/ good/ student/ our class.
....
84. refrigerator/ next/ closet/ and/ front/ dishwasher.
....
85. Traveling/ train/ slower/ but/ interesting/ traveling/ plane.
....
86. Miss. Trang/ take care/ sick children/ same hospital/ as/ mother.
....
87. it/ difficult/ find/ apartment/ Ho Chi Minh city?
....
88. Brazil/ most successful/ soccer team/ world.
....
89. Lessons/ this year/ long/ difficult/ those/ last year.
....
90. farmers/ work hard/ morning/ night.
....
III. Write something about your favorite sport or activity you often take part in your free time and tell what you do to keep fit, using about 100 to 120 words (2pts)
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
....
___THE END___
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HUYỆN SƠN DƯƠNG
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM 
BÀI THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN
 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 7 - NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
(Hướng dẫn chấm có 04 trang)
Each correction has 0,2 points
SECTION A: LISTENING (2 pts)
I. 9 (Questions 1-5): Listen and choose the correct options to complete the sentences (1pt)
Man: Do you have any brothers and sisters? 
Woman: Yes, I have one sister. 
Man: Who is older, you or your sister? 
Woman: My sister is older than me. 
Man: Do you get along with your sister? 
Woman: Yes, we get along okay. 
Man: How about your parents? 
Woman: My father died many years ago. 
Man: I'm sorry to hear about that. 
Woman: My mother is fine though. She is very strong and back to work. 
Man: What does your mother do? 
Woman: She teaches at a university. 
Man: That's great. What does she teach? 
Woman: She teaches Psy. 
Man: Pardon me. I do not understand. 
Woman: She teaches psychology. 
Man: Psychology. I understand now. 
Woman: How about you? Are you married? 
Man: I'm not married yet. I had a girlfriend for many years but we broke up. 
Woman: I'm sad to hear that.
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. B
II. 9 (Questions 6-10): Listen and decide whether the statements are T or F (1 pt)
Man: Hello.
Woman: Hello.
Man: How are you?
Woman: I'm fine, Thank you. And you?
Man: I'm fine, thank you. Where are you from?
Woman: I come from England.
Man: You come from England! Do you like Manchester United?
Woman: Um, I don't like football.
Man: Oh, You don't like football, I see. Why did you come here?
Woman: I came for vacation.
Man: You came for vacation? Are you having fun?
Woman: Yes, I'm having a great time.
Man: What do you like best here?
Woman: What do I like best? Well, the people are very kind.
M: Yes, the people here are kind. Do you like the food?
Woman: Yes! The food is great!
M: Is the food too spicy for you?
Woman: No, I love spicy food! I can eat spicy food everyday.
M: How much longer will you stay here?
Woman: I will stay two more days.
M: Oh! The you will go home?
Woman: Yes, then I will go home.
M: Where do you work?
Woman: I work for a big company.
M: What kind of company do you work for?
Woman: I work for an import company. And what about you?
M: I work at a bank.
Woman: Uh. Are you a bank teller?
M: No, I'm the owner.
Woman: Oh.
6. . The woman is British and she is going on her vacation.
7. . The thing she likes best is the beautiful sight here.
8. .. She loves the food here because it is spicy food.
9. .. She is a teacher and she works in a big school.
10. .The man ever had a girl friend.
6. T
7. F
8. T
9. F
10. T
SECTION B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (8, pts)
I. (Questions 11-20): Choose the best answer by circling its corresponding letter A, B, C or D (2 pts)
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. C
18. D
19. C
20. B
II. (Questions 21-30): Give the correct forms of words in the brackets (2 pts)
21. drivers
22. participants
23. unuseful/ useless
24. electrician
25. building
26. variety
27. creative
28. poisonous
29. punishment
30. enjoyable
III. (Questions 31-37): Complete the following questions with the correct preposition (1,4 pts)
31. against
32. without
33. of 34. in
35. of
36. at
37. for 
IV. (Questions 38-45): Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verb in parenthese (1,6 pts)
38. was born
39. will not laugh
40. making 
41. be
42. to do
43. look
44. was
45. will feel
V. (Questions 46-50): Each of the following sentences contains one error. Underline and correct it (1 pt)
46. waters → water
47. cutted → cut
48. many → much
49. more → x
50. interested → interesting
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (5 pts)
I. (Questions 51-60): Read the following passage, then choose the letter (A, B, C, D) that best fits each of the blanks (2 pts) 
51. B
52. C
53. A
54. D
55. B
56. A
57. C
58. D
59. C
60. B
II. (Questions 61-70): Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word (2 pts)
61. by
62. a/ heart
63. with
64. also
65. health
66. sports
67. even
68. and
69. spend
70. how
III. (Questions 71-75): Read the following passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the sentence below (1 pt)
71. D
72. D
73. B
74. C
75. D
SECTION E: WRITING (5 pts) 
I. (Questions 76-82): Rewrite each of the sentences below in such a way that its meaning is similar to that of the original one (1,4 pts)
76. It isn’t necessary for you to finish the work today.
	→ You don’t have to finish the work today
	→ You don’t need to finish the work today.
77. There are over eight hundred stamps in Long’s collection.
	→ Long’s collection has over eight hundred stamps.
78. How high is Big Ben Clock Tower?
	→ What is the height of Big Ben Clock Tower?
	→ What is the Big Ben clock Tower’s height?
79. Mr Thanh couldn’t enjoy the meal because of stomachache.
	→ The stomachache prevented Mr. Thanh from enjoying the meal.
80. You shouldn’t eat too much meat.
	→ You’d better not eat too much meat.
81. Long is a bad swimmer.
	→ Long swims badly.
82. We usually wrote letters when we lived in the countryside.
	→ We used to write letters when we lived in the countryside.
II. (Questions 83-90): Complete the sentence from the cues given, you can give any changes if it is necessary (1,6 pts)
83. Trang/ the/ good/ student/ our class.
	→ Trang is the best student in our class.
84. Refrigerator/ next/ closet/ and/ front/ dishwasher.
	→ The refrigerator is next to the closet and in front of the dishwasher.
85. Traveling/ train/ slower/ but/ interesting/ traveling/ plane.
	→ Traveling by train is slower but it's more interesting than traveling by plane.
86. Miss. Trang/ take care/ sick children/ same hospital/ as/ mother.
	→ Miss. Trang takes care of sick children in the same hospital as their mother.
87. it/ difficult find/ apartment/ Ho Chi Minh city?
	→ Is it difficult to find an apartment in Ho Chi Minh city?
88. Brazil/ most successful/ soccer team/ world.
	→ Brazil is the most successful soccer team in the world.
89. Lessons/ this year/ long/ difficult/ those/last year.
	→ Lessons in this year are longer and more difficult than those last year.
90. farmers/ work hard/ morning/ night.
	→ Farmers work hard from morning till/ until night.
III. Write something about your favorite sport or activity you often take part in your free time and tell what you do to keep fit, using about 100 to 120 words (2pts)
- Organization: (Bố cục bài luận rõ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận) (0, 25 pts)
- Discourse: (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) (0, 5 pts)
- Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary and spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu linh hoạt (đơn, phức.) (0, 5 pts)
- Ideas: (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi) (0, 5 pts)
- Length: (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định, không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn. (0, 25 pts)
Note: Bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và dưới 2 lỗi ngữ pháp được cho điểm tối đa.