Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp trường môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 7 - Năm học 2020-2021

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG NĂM HỌC 2020- 2021
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 7
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Họ và tên: .................. Lớp 7
Số báo danh
Họ tên, chữ kí giám thị 1
Họ tên, chữ kí giám thị 2
Số phách
Đường cắt phách
Điểm bài thi
(Bằng số)
Điểm bài thi
(Bằng chữ)
Giám khảo 1
Giám khảo 2
Số phách
LƯU Ý:
- Đề thi gồm 05 trang, thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi.
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu nào kể cả từ điển.
PART A: PRONUNCIATION (5 points)
Question I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (3 points).
1. A. those
 B. thin
 C. bath
 D. anything
2. A. agent
 B. place
 C. surface
 D. ancient
3. A. huge
 B. flag
 C. luggage
 D. large
Question II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (2 points)
4. A. successful	
 B. humorous
 C. arrangement
 D. attractive
5. A. education
 B. economic
 C. preparation
 D. development
PART B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35 points)
Question I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences by circling A, B, C or D. (12 points)
6. We are excitedgoing to the festivals that are held in the countryside.
 A. with 	 B. about 	 C. for 	 D. of
7.  the people in the area live in neighboring villages.
 A. Most of 	 B. Most	 C. Almost 	 D. The most
8. Lan didn’t know the word. Hoa didn’t, 
 A. so 	 B. too	 	 C. neither 	 D. either 
9. How long did the meeting ?
A. happen 	 B. take 	 C. last 	 D. cost
10. The books here are................. more expensive than those at the bookshop.
 A. the most 	B. much 	 C. little 	 D. many
11. She looked at me when I told her the good news.
 A. happily	 B. happy	 C. happiness 	 D. unhappy
12. I. meeting your new girlfriend
 A. look	 B. look up	 C. look forward to	 D. look down
 13. She has brown hair and acomplexion.
 A. fair	 B. long	 C. blue	 D. gray
14. I went into the hall and hungmy coat on the coat hanger.
 A. in	 B. on	 C. down	 D up. 
15. He finally..the decision to go abroad.
 A. came with	 B. came	 C. came up	 D. came up with
16. I put on one shoe and then.
 A. other	 B. the other	 C. others	 D. another
17.  is the post office? - About 15 minutes’ walk
 A. How far	B. How long	C. How often	D. How tall
Question II. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in capital letters. (10 points)
18. The university was a great ( SUCCEED ) and it became famous all over the world.
19. We are waiting for the ( ARRIVE ) of his plane. 
20. They are going to ( BEAUTUFUL) the town with more trees and parks.
21. There’s some new ( EQUIP ) in the laboratory.
22. China is one of the world’s leading ( PRODUCE ) of rice.
23. Scientists have made ( COMPARE ) tests on the new drugs.
24. An ( ACCOUNT ) should be good at Maths.
25. He received a medal for his (HERO) .
26. The cards in the library are in ( ALPHABET ) order	
27. I’m afraid you’ve ( UNDERSTAND ) me because that’s not what I meant.
Question III. Each of the following sentences contains one error. Circle and correct it. (6 points)
28. You are not allowed using a mobile phone on a plane.
 A B C D	 	
29. The best way for children to learn science is for them to perform experiments himself.
 A B C	 D	
30. Generally speaking, we don’t eat much meat as we used to.	
 A B C D	 
31. The cake looks delicious but it is too hot for me to eat it.
 A B C D	 
32.They’d enjoy a visit to the wildlife reserve, had they?
 A B D	
33. The major source of air pollution vary from city to city.
 A B C D	
Question IV. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (7 points)
34. After they (complete)the project, we will start the new plan.
35. Could you please stop (write) ............................letters?
36. If I (have )..money with me now, I would buy that hat.
37. I’d rather you (not tell)..Lucy what I bought. I want to surprise her.
38. Don’t stay up too late or you (be) ..............................tired.
39. The meeting will continue until a decision (make)
40. Thousands of antibiotics (develop), but only about thirty are in comment use today. 
PART C- READING COMPREHENSION – (25 points)
Question I. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (10 points)
	The threat to the environment.
	Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (41) Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become (42)..if we do not make an effort to (43)them. There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are (44)
for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, (45). as parrots, are caught alive, and sold as pets. For many animals and birds, the problem is that their habitat- the (46). where they live- is disappearing. More (47) is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open (48) than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better (49), but these chemicals pollute the environment and harm wildlife. The most successful animals on earth- human beings- will soon be the only ones left unless we can (50).this problem. 
Question II. Read the passage below and then circle the correct answer A, B, C or D. (10 points)
	 Advertising.
When a company wants to (51) the sales of a product, it will usually advertise. An advertisement 
(52).us what products are available and it also (53) us to buy a particular product. Today’s television advertisements (54)... millions of people, but the first forms on advertising were much more local. Market traders shouted out what they had for sale and large signs (55)displayed outside shops. Modern advertising began about 150 years ago, when factories started producing goods (56).
.large quantities. Before long, advertisements for a wide (57)..of products appeared in national newspapers.
Nowadays, we see many different (58).. of advertisements. They can appear on the sides of vehicles and on the clothes we wear as well as on television and radio. But the (59). of all advertisements is the same. They try to (60) ..our attention and get us to buy a particular product.
51. A. increase	 B. correct	C. rise	D. create
52. A. says	B. indicates 	C. tells D. announces
53 A. approves 	B. suggests C. wins D. persuades
54. A. arrive	B. pass 	C. reach D. spread
55. A. has B. were C. had D. are
56. A. in B. at 	C. of D. by
57. A. area	B. row 	C. range D. pack
58. A. methods 	B. kinds 	C. systems D. ways
59. A. aim	B. plan 	C. attempt D. wish
60. A. pull 	 B. achieve C. bring D. attract
Question III. Read the passage below and choose the correct answer for each question. (5 points).
	My perfect holiday.
	My perfect holiday used to be two weeks in a hotel with no cooking, no cleaning and staff waiting on me all day. After we had children we found it easier to choose places where kitchen facilities were included and we did the cooking. It was a generally more convenient option although we tended to stay in Britain because of the cost. Then a friend of mine introduced us to the idea of house- exchange holidays. 
At first, the thought of staying in somebody else’s home, with all the worries of keeping it clean and tidy and being constantly careful not to break anything, was unthinkable. Equally, I didn’t like the idea of complete strangers wandering about in my home, using my bathroom and sleeping in my bed. However, my friend described how she and her husband and their two children had spent two weeks in Florida for the price of the flight. She told me how they had stayed in a lovely apartment in the heart of the real Florida, well away from the tourist traps. They had had no problems with the family of four that had stayed in their house in London.
Because they were so positive we decided to try it ourselves. We joined a house- exchange agency, chose the countries we were interested in visiting and were soon sent information on possible swaps. Finally we chose a family in Vancouver, went away and had the best holiday we’d ever had. That was five years ago. Since then we’ve been to Prague, Finland, Edinburgh, Washington and Sydney.
61. What is the writer trying to do in the text?
A. describe a fantastic holiday she had in Florida. B. complain about the high cost of holidays.
C. warn against having a holiday I a hotel D. suggest a different type of holiday.
62. Why didn’t the writer like the idea of staying in somebody else’s home?
A. because she would need to use their bathroom.
B. because she would have to worry about looking after the place
C. because she would be responsible for security
D. because she would have to sleep in a strange bedroom. 
63. What did the writer’s friend like about her house- exchange?
A. the opportunities for tourists.
B. the fact that it was good value.
C. The genuine design of their apartment.
D. The four families who stayed in London.
64. Why did the writer and her family decide to try a house- exchange holiday?
A. her family were bored with their usual holidays.
B. she likes the idea of going to Florida.
C. some friends had had a good experience
D. she needed to spend less on holiday.
65. Which of the following is not true about the house- exchange holiday that the writer and her family had?
A. they enjoyed it very much.
B. It was five years ago.
C. they went to Vancouver
D. It is the only holiday of this kind they have had
PART D: WRITING (15 points)
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (8 points) 
66.Mr Quyen began teaching Chinese ten years ago.
Mr Quyen has
67.These two boxers weigh exactly the same
	There is no.
68.What is the weight of your suitcase?
	How
69. Nobody left the party before me.
	I was.
70. Can you describe him to me?
	What.
71. Although Tuan took a taxi, he still arrived late for the interview.
	In spite of.. 
72. Do they have to look after the school garden every Saturday?
	Do they have to take.?
73. They went on smoking all through the meal.
	They didn’t
Question II: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. DO NOT change the word given. (7 points)
74. The weather is fine, but my flowers haven’t come out. (OF)
75. I like going sailing than swimming.( RATHER)
76. I was never allowed to walk barefoot when I was a child.(LET)
	.
77. I haven’t been to the cinema for two months. (TIME)
78. We had to do a lot of homework at school. (MADE)
	..
79. They have collected the tests and checked the answers. ( BEEN) 
80. We can solve the problem. (BE)
	.
 The end
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KIỂM TRA HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG NĂM HỌC 2020- 2021
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 7
A- ĐÁP ÁN
PART A: PRONUNCIATION (5 points)
Question I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (3 points) 
1- A those
2. – C surface
3- B flag
4. B. humorous
5. D. development
Question II- Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (2 points)
PART B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35 points)
Question I-Choose the best answer to complete the sentences by circling A, B, C or D. (12 points)
6. B. about 
7. A. most of
8. D. either 
9. C last
10. B. much
11. A. happily
12. C. Look forward to
13. A. fair
14. D. up
15. D. Come up with
16. B. The other
17. A. How far
Question II- (10 pts): Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in capital letters. 
18. success
19. arrival
20. beautify
21. equipment
22. producers
23. comparative
24. accountant
25. heroism
26. alphabetical
27.misunderstood
Question III- Each of the following sentences contains one error. Circle and correct it. (6 points)
MISTAKE
CORRECT
28
B. 
-> to use
29
D. 
-> themselves
30
C. 
–> as much
31
D . 
-> to eat
32
D 
-> wouldn’t they
33
B
–> sources
Question IV- Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (7 points)
34-have completed/ complete
35- writing
36- had
37- didn’t tell
38 will be
39- is made/ has been made
 40- have been developed
PART C- READING COMPREHENSION – (25 points)
Question I- Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word. (10 points)
41. thret
42. extinct
43. protect
44. hunted
45. such
46. place
47. land
48. spaces
49. crops
50. solve
Question II- Read the passage below and then circle the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Write it in ‘Your answers’ part. (10 points)
51. A- increase
52. C. tells
53. D- persuade
54. C- reach
55. B- were
56. A. in
57. C- range
58. B. kinds
59. a- aim
60. D- attract
Question III. Read the passage below and choose the correct answer for each question. Write it in ‘Your answers’ part. (5 points)
61. D
62. B
63. B
64. C
65. D
PART D: WRITING- (15 points)
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (8 points) 
66-Mr Quyen has been teaching Chinese for ten years
. - Mr Quyen has taught Chinese..
 - Mr Quyen has been a teacher of Chinese.
67- There is no difference in weight between the two boxers.
68- How heavy is your suitcase?
69- I was the first (person) to leave the party.
70-What does he look like?/ What is he like?.
71-In spite of taking a taxi, Tuan still arrived late for the interview
 (44). - In spite of having taken a taxi, Tuan still arrived late for the interview.
72. Do they have to take care of the school garden every Saturday?
73. They didn’t stop smoking all through the meal.
Question II: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. DO NOT change the word given. (7 points)
74-My flowers haven’t come out in spite of the fine weather.
75- I’d rather go sailing than swimming.
76-My parents never let me	 walk barefoot when I was a child
77- The last time I went to the cinema was two months ago.
78-We were made to do a lot of homework at school.
79-The tests have been collected and the answers have been checked.
80- The problem can be solved.
Hướng dẫn:
	- Tổng toàn bài là 80 phần học sinh phải làm, mỗi phần làm đúng được 1 điểm.
	- Thang điểm: 20
	Tổng số điểm những câu, cụm từ, từ làm đúng
	- Điểm bài thi = ------------------------------------------------------
	4
	- Tổng điểm làm tròn đến 0,25