Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT chuyên môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2013-2014 - Hà Nam

SỞ GD&ĐT HÀ NAM
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ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN
NĂM HỌC 2013-2014
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh – Đề chuyên
Thời gian 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề 
(Đề thi gồm 05 trang; thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi này)
ĐIỂM CỦA BÀI THI
Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo
SỐ PHÁCH
Bằng số:
Giám khảo số 1:
Bằng chữ:
Giám khảo số 2:
SECTION A. PHONETICS (10 points)
Pick out the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced (8 points):
1. A. tidal	B. sight	C. mineral	D. describe
2. A. energy	B. generous	C. category	D. suggest
3. A. chemistry	B. kitchen	C. watch	D. catch
4. A. mutual 	B. nature	C. capture	D. nation
5. A. looked	B. moved	C. gained	D. prepared
6. A. farmers	B. hats	C. rooms	D. prisons
7. A. village	B. passage	C. teenage	D. message
8. A. few	B. new	C. threw	D. knew
Pick out the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words (2 points):
9. A. admire	B. honor	C. title	D. difficult
10. A. comprise	B. correspond	C. compulsory	D. depend
SECTION B. LEXICO & GRAMMAR (35 points)
Part I. Give the correct tense/form of the verbs in brackets to complete these sentences (10 points):
a) A: I (1. not see) ..your brother recently.
 B: He (2. not be) .out of his room since he (3. buy) ... a new computer.
b) While Mr. Brown (4. read) . a newspaper, his two children (5. listen) .to an English song.
c) My mother would rather I (6. not go) .out late at night.
d) My children enjoy (7. allow) .(8. stay) ..up late when there is something special on TV.
e) I suggest (9. give) ..her a surprising party. 
f) She looks as if she (10.be)..very rich.
Part II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points):
1. My brother can repair electric ..very well.
apply
2. We must learn about keeping the environment ..
pollute
3. He was .when he failed his driving test.
hope
4. Mr. Smith is a ..person. If he says he will do something, you know that he will do.
depend
5. He left the room without . 
explain
6. The of finding new oil reserves has been led to more drilling in the Gulf of Mexico.
necessary
7. On a ..day, we receive about fifty letters.
type
8. I’m sorry about my ., but I hate waiting.
patient
9. There is a .of fruits in Vietnam.
vary
10. During his , his family lived in the country.
child
Part III. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete these sentences (10 points):
1. The room  when I arrived. 
 A. was being cleaned B. is cleaned	C. was cleaning	D. was cleaned
2. The students are being made  harder. 
 A. work 	B. worked C. to work D. working
3. He told me .. 
A. smoke cigarettes. 	B. smoking cigarettes.	
C. not to smoke cigarettes.	D. not smoking cigarettes.
4.  my father is old, he still goes jogging. 
A. Although	B. Because of C. In spite of D. Despite
5. My grandfather died after he  ill for a long time. 
A. had been 	B. was C. has been D. would be 
6. That is the  interesting novel I’ve ever read. 
A. more	B. so C. most D. very
7. Some fish can survive in salt water,. other species can live only in fresh water.
A. where	 B. as long as	 C. whereas	 D. since
8. When you are in orbit, you will be able.on the walls or on the ceiling like in the circus.
A. to walk	B. walk	C. walks	 D. walking
9. she starts at once, she will be late.
A. If	B. Unless	C. Or	 D. When
10. He left school  his hard life.
A. as if	B. because	C. because of	 D. though
11. The man over there is an artist  father can speak four languages.
A. who	B. whose	C. whom	 D. which
12. I prefer  whenever I have free time.
A. watching TV to listening to music 	B. watch TV to listen to music 
C. to watch TV than listening to music 	D. watching TV to listen to music 
13. John gave up stamps.
A. collect	B. to collect	C. collected	 D. collecting
14. Would you mind if I the window?
A. open	B. to open	C. opening	 D. opened
15. It is high time we  our house. It looks very old.
A. repaint	B. to repaint	C. repainting	 D. repainted
16. I usually spend two hours  English with my friends.
A. practising	B. to practise	C. practises	 D. practised
17. I don’t know how this exercise. Could you do me a favor?
A. do 	B. doing	C. to do	D. did 
18. Ba: Thank you very much for inviting me to the party. 	- Lan : .
A. You are well.	B. You are welcome.	C. It’s very nice of you. D. That’s a good idea.
19. Nam: I don’t like watching violent films. - Nga: 
A. So do I. 	B. I do, too.	C. I do, either.	D. Neither do I.
20. What is her ? – “She is one meter and sixty centimeters tall.”
A. high	B. height	C. tall	 	 D. weight
Part IV: Identify the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C or D) in each sentence below that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct (5 points):
Almost all the students were confusing because Ms. Kelly’s explanation was unclear.
 A	 B	 	 C	 D
My parents don’t let me to go out without saying anything. 
 	A 	 B C 	 D
The students were interesting in taking a trip to the National History Museum, but they 
	A 	 B C 
were not able to raise enough money. 
	D
We didn’t go out because of the heavily rain. 
	A 	 B C D
This bed, where he used to rest on, is made of wood. 
	A 	B 	C 	D
SECTION C. READING (30 points)
Part I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points):
	Health is something we tend to (1) ___ when we have it. When our body is doing well, we are hardly (2) ___ of it. But illness can come, even (3) ____ we are young. In fact, childhood has been a very susceptible time. Many diseases attack children in particular, and people know very little (4) ____ to cure them once they struck. The result was that many children died. About a century ago, (5) _____, scientists found out about germs, and then everything changed. The (6) _____ of many diseases was found, and cures were developed. As this medical discovery spread, the world became (7) ____ safer for children. The result is that (8) ____ a hundred years ago, the average man lived for 5 years, nowadays, in many areas of the world, people can (9) ____ to live for 75 years. And what do we expect by the year 2020? Undoubtedly, medical science will continue to (10) _____. Some people will be able to avoid medical problems that are unavoidable today.
1. A. forget	B. ignore	C. give up	D. throw away
2. A. awake	B. keen	C. aware	D. concerned
3. A. if	B. so	C. when	D. while
4. A. how	B. what	C. which	D. when
5. A. therefore	B. however	C. although	D. moreover
6. A. reason	B. origin	C. source	D. cause
7. A. more	B. much	C. very	D. quite
8. A. where	B. when	C. why	D. whereas
9. A. desire	B. hope	C. want	D. expect
10. A. speed up	 B. advance	C. accelerate	 D. run
Part II. Read the passage and do the following tasks (10 points):
	The Washington Post is the largest and most circulated newspaper in Washington, D.C, USA, and is the city’s oldest newspaper, founded in 1877. It is widely considered to be one of the most important newspapers in the United States due to its particular emphasis on national politics, and international affairs, and being a newspaper of record. Even so, the Washington Post has always been defined as a local paper and does not print any editions for the outside region beyond that of the D.C, Maryland, or Virginia editions for daily circulation.
	The newspaper is published as a broadsheet, with photographs printed both in color as well as in black and white. Weekday printings include the main section, containing the first page, national, international news, politics, and editorials and opinions, followed by the sections on local news (Metro), sports, business, style (feature writing on pop culture, politics, fine and performing arts, film, fashion, and gossip), and classified ads.
	The Sunday edition includes the weekday sections as well as several weekly sections: Outlook (opinion and editorials), Style and Arts, Sunday Source, Travel, Book world, Comics, TV week, and the Washington Post Magazine. Beyond the newspaper, the Washington Post under its parent company of the Washington Post Company is involved with the Washington Post, Newsweek Interactive and Washingtonpost.com.
Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to answer the questions below: 
1. When was the Washington Post founded?
A. 1877	B. 1787	C. 1778	D. 1887
2. The Washington Post is  .
A. the newest newspaper.	 B. the oldest newspaper in the USA.
C. the oldest newspaper in Washington, D.C.	D. the sports newspaper.
3. Why is the Washington Post the most important newspaper in the United States?
A. Because of its particular emphasis on national politics, and international affairs.
B. Because of its particular emphasis on national culture, and international affairs.
C. Because of its particular emphasis on national sports, and international affairs.
D. Because of its particular emphasis on national history, and international affairs.
4. The photographs of the newspaper are mainly printed .. .
A. in white and black.	B. both in color as well as in black and white.
C. in color.	D. in bad quality of paper.
5. Weekly sections of the Washington Post include . .
A. Outlook (opinion and editorials).	
B. Sunday Source, Travel, Book world.
C. Outlook (opinion and editorials), Style and Arts, Sunday Source, Travel, Book world, Comics, TV week, and the Washington Post Magazine.
D. Comics, TV week, and the Washington Post Magazine.
Decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F):
T/F
6. The Washington Post is the newspaper that does not print any edition for the outside region beyond that of the D.C.
7. The Washington Post is the largest newspaper in the USA.
8. Not many people in the world know about the Washington Post.
9. The Sunday edition only includes the weekday sections.
10. You will be able to find the Washington Post on the Internet.
Part III: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to complete the following passage (10 points):
Nicola Peet (1) school at eighteen, went to college and then worked at a local airport. After nine months, she went to work (2) Saudi Arabian Airlines and then she joined British Airways as an air-hostess. Four years later, she got her present job as a manager.
This is (3) she told us about her job:
 	“My office is at Heathrow Airport, but I (4) 60% of my time in the air, I teach air- hostesses and help them with any problems. I also go to a lot of meetings. My hours are usually from 8 am (5) sometimes I work from 1 pm to 9 pm. At work, the first thing I do is to (6) plane time on my computer and then I speak with some of the air-hostesses. Sometimes I go on long flights to check how the air-hostesses are doing. That is my favorite part of the job, but I like office work, too. (7) can be a hard work. When I get back from a long (8), all I can do (9) eating something and then going to bed! I don’t earn much (10), but I’m happy with British Airways and want to stay there and continue to travel.”
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it (10 points): 
1. I applied for the job but was turned down.
My 
2. I hate people laughing at me.
I ....
3. “You stole the jewels!” the inspector said to him.
The inspector accused 
4. Galileo is considered to be the father of modern astronomy.
Galileo is regarded 
5. It’s not easy to do all this work in half an hour.
I find it 
6. He started working for this company two years ago.
He has 
7. I’ll be happy to give you a lift.
I don’t mind 
8. James will ask the mechanic to repair his car.
James will have
9. Carter felt sick because he ate four cream cakes.
If 
10. I am sorry I was rude to you yesterday.
I apologize 
Part II. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that has the same meaning with the given one using the suggested word. Do not change the given word in any way (5 points):
1. Teddy regretted buying the second-hand TV. (WISHED)
2. “You’d better help your parents.”, Nga said to Ba.(advised)
................... 
3. I don’t intend to tell you my plans. (INTENTION)
4. Burning forests will lead to the destruction of wildlife habitat. (DESTROY)
5. We couldn’t go to school because it rained heavily. (PREVENTED)
Part III. Write a letter of about 150 words to tell the soldiers in the Truong Sa Islands about the recent changes in your home town / home village (10 points):
THE END
ANSWER KEYS
SECTION A. PHONETICS (10 points):
Pick out the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced (8 points):
Pick out the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words (2 points):
01 point /1 correct answer x 10 = 10 points
1. C	2. C	3. A	4. D	5. A	6. B	7. C	8. C	9. A	10. B
SECTION B. LEXICO & GRAMMAR (35 points):
Part I. Give the correct tense/form of the verbs in brackets to complete these sentences (10 points):
01 point /1 correct answer x 10 = 10 points
1. haven’t seen	2. hasn’t been	 3. bought	4. was reading	5. were listening
6. didn’t go	 7. being allowed	8. to stay	9. giving	10. were
Part II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points):
01 point /1 correct answer x 10 = 10 points
1. appliances	2. unpolluted	3. hopeless	4. dependable	5. explanation
6. necessity	7. typical	8. impatience	9. variety	10. childhood
Part III. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete these sentences (10 points):
0,5 point /1 correct answer x 20 = 10 points
1. A	2. C	3. C	4. A	5. A	6. C	7. C	8. A	9. B	10. C
11. B	12. A	13. D	14. D	15. D	16. A	17. C	18. B	19. D	20. B 
Part IV: Identify the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C or D) in each sentence below that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct (5 points):
01 point/1 correct answer x 5 = 5 points
1. C	2. C	3. B	4. D	5. A 
SECTION C. READING (30 points):
Part I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points):
01 point/1 correct answer x 10 = 10 points
1. B	2. C	3. C	4. A	5. D	6. D	7. B	8. D	9. D	10. B
Part II. Read the passage and do the following tasks (10 points):
01 point/1 correct answer x 5 = 5 points
1. A	2. C	3. A	4. B	5. C 
11. T 12. F 13. F 14. F 15. T
Part III: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to complete the following passage (10 points): 01 point/1 correct answer x 10 = 10 points
1. left	2. for	3. what	4. spend	5. but
6. check	7. traveling	8. journey	 9. is	10. money 
SECTION D. WRITING (25 points)
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it (10 points): 
01 point/1 correct answer x 10 = 10 points
My application was turned down.
I hate being laughed at.
The inspector accused him of stealing the jewels.
Galileo is regarded as the father of modern astronomy.
I find it not easy/ difficult to do all this work in half an hour.
He has worked/has been working for this company for two years.
I don’t mind giving you a lift.
James will have the mechanic repair his car.
Or: James will have his car repaired (by the mechanic).
If Carter hadn’t eaten four cream cakes, he wouldn’t have felt sick. 
I apologize for being rude to you yesterday.
Part II. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that has the same meaning with the given one using the suggested word. Do not change the given word in any way (5 points):
01 point/1 correct answer x 5 = 5 points
Teddy wished he hadn’t bought the second-hand TV.
Nga advised Ba to help his parents .
I don’t have an intension to tell/ of telling you my plan.
Or: I have no intension to tell/ of telling you my plan.
Burning forests will destroy the wildlife habitat. 
The heavy rain prevented us from going to school.
Part III. Write a letter of about 150 words to tell the soldiers in the Truong Sa Islands about the recent changes in your home town or home village. (10 points):
Form: a letter (2 points)
+ Easy to read
+ Coherent 
Content: 4 points
Successful fulfillment of the task with appropriate (the recent changes in your home town or home village).
Language: 4 points
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1 point)
+ Correct grammar (1 point)
+ Connectors (1 point)
+ Spelling/ Punctuality (1 point)
THE END