Đề thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 THPT chuyên môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2015-2016

SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Dành cho thí sinh thi vào lớp chuyên Tiếng Anh và chuyên Tiếng Pháp
Thời gian làm bài 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.
PART A: LISTENING
I. You are going to hear a man phoning to ask about a holiday apartment. Write no more than TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the conversation TWICE
	Dubai Palm Apartments
Enquiry taken by:
Amanda
Name:
(1)______________________.
Address:
37 (2)______________________Vienna.
Telephone number:
(3)______________________.
Number of people:
four
Starting date:
(4)______________________January.
Length of stay:
(5)______________________.
Price per day:
maximum (6)______________________euros.
Other requirements:
fully equipped (7)______________________.
view of (8)______________________.
air conditioning must be (9)______________________.
(10)______________________for car.
II. Listen to the conversation and choose best option A, B or C. You will hear the conversation TWICE
1. The caller wants to do a writing course to help with__________.
	A. his hobby	B. his job	C. his children’s education
2. What does the course pack include?
	A. multimedia items	B. a list of books to buy	C. lesson and assignment dates
3. How much does the course cost?
	A. £340	B. £375	C. £400
4. Alex’s first assignment will be about his__________.
	A. family life	B. school experiences	C. expectations of the course
5. What does the feedback include?
	A. a tutorial	B. an exercise	C. a discussion group
III. Listen to the recording and choose the best option A, B or C. You will hear the recording TWICE
1. The students did the study skills course because__________.
	A. it was part of their syllabus	
B. they needed it to prepare for an exam
C. their tutor recommended it
2. Why did Sylvie and Daniel use a questionnaire?
	A. Other people preferred the method.	
B. It reduced the preparation time.
C. More information could be obtained.
3. How often did the students meet in class for the course?
	A. once a week	B. twice a week	C. every weekday
4. Why did Daniel like the course?
	A. It improved his confidence.	
B. It focused on economics articles.
C. It encouraged him to read more books.
5. What did the students like about Jenny?
	A. her homework assignments.	
B. her choice of study material.
C. her style of teaching.
PART B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences
1. The tourists asked me_______ to the museum.
 	A. how could they get	B. how to get	C. could they get	D. how they get 
2. We are really looking forward_______ the competition.
A. entering	B. to enter	C. enter	D. to entering
3. The meeting will start when everyone_______.
A. will arrive	B. arrives	C. is arriving	D. will have arrived
4. Janet has_______ several prizes for her singing.
 	A. won	B. gained	C. made	D. taken
5. Playing ball in the classroom was a bad idea, boys. You could_______ a window.
A. broke	B. have been breaking	C. be breaking	D. have broken
6. _______ my shyness, they refused to give me the job as a receptionist.
 	A. Despite	B. As for	C. Due to	D. Instead of
7. Victor: “Have you seen Helga?” 	
 Ann: “She was here earlier but I haven’t seen her_______ a while now.”
A. at	B. for	C. by	D. about
8. They didn’t have_______ in their suitcase for all the things they had bought here.
 	A. room	B. place	C. area	D. size
9. I am leaving the key under the pot in the garden_______ you should be home earlier than usual.
A. because	B. in case	C. so that	D. though
10. I couldn’t_______ her. She is a fast runner.
A. come up with	B. catch up with	C. bring back	D. get away
11. Luke came across this old coin by_______ while cleaning the attic.
A. surprise	B. oneself	C. chance	D. force
12. I found it interesting to live in the_______ society of Australia although this diversity was confusing sometimes.
 	A. poly-cultural	B. horticultural	C. semi-cultural	D. multicultural
13. I borrowed the money_______ the bank.
A. to	B. of	C. for	D. from
14. The robber was made _______ where he had hidden the money.
A. to confess	B. confess	C. confessing	D. to confessing
15. I’m tired of washing by hand. I could_______ with a washing machine.
 	A. make	B. get	C. have	D. do
16. Would you like to help me_______ these photocopies?
A. carry out	B. give out	C. bring along	D. come across
17. To my_____, the washing machine helps lighten women’s hard work.
 	A. belief	B. way	C. opinion	D. mind
18. Be careful not to_______ silly mistakes.
 	A. do	B. set	C. have	D. make.
19. Studies indicate that_______ collecting art today than ever before.
 	 A. there more people	B. more people that are	
 	C. there are more people	D. people there are more 
20. Every computer consists of a number of systems_______ together.
 	A. who work	B. work	C. they work	D. that work
II. Identify the incorrect part among the four options A, B, C or D in each sentence
1. Many television newscasters make the public an eyewitness to the news by means of on-the- spot, alive report.
 	 A. Many television 	B. an eyewitness 	 C. by means of 	D. alive report.
2. It may be argued that modern presidents have far great responsibilities than their predecessors did.
 A. may be argued 	B. great 	 C. their 	D. did 
3. He is such a friend person. He greets me with a smile every time I see him.
	 A. friend	B. greets	 C. a smile	D. time
4. Anyone reproducing copyrighted works without permission of the holders of the copyrights are breaking the law.
	 A. reproducing	B. without permission	 C. the holders of	D. are breaking
5. Hardly he had got downstairs when the phone stopped ringing.
	 A. he had	B. downstairs	 C. when	D. ringing
III. Read the following passage carefully and put the words in brackets into their correct forms
 There is still no adequate _______(1. EXPLAIN) why, several thousand years ago, cultures in both Egypt and South America saw the _______(2. INTRODUCE) of pyramids. Was it coincidence? Many ________
(3. SCIENCE) believe that it was, and state that there is no _______(4. POSSIBLE) at all that people from two distant continents traded information on _______(5. BUILD) techniques. However, some _______
 (6. REVOLUTION) theories in recent years, based on the _______(7. DISCOVER) that the two cultures also share key myths, legends and beliefs, suggest that the _______(8. APPEAR) of pyramids on opposite sides of the world was no coincidence at all. One ______(9. RESEARCH) working on this, Crystal David, said: “The _______(10. IMPORTANT) of finding out the truth here cannot be exaggerated. It could change our whole understanding of the history of the world.”
PART C: READING
I. Complete the passage by filling in each blank with ONE suitable word
 When the day comes, give yourself plenty of time to do everything: have breakfast but don't drink (1)_______ much; go to the toilet; arrive on time, but not too early or you will find yourself getting more and more nervous while you wait to start. Try not to talk (2)_______ the exam before you go in. 
 In the exam, calm (3)_______ down by breathing deeply and thinking positively. Read the exam questions carefully and underline all of the key instruction words (4) _______ indicate how the questions should (5) _______ answered. If possible start with the ones you can do easily to give you confidence. Remember what you've learnt from practicing questions and doing mock exams previously and plan your use of time. Don't panic (6) _______ everyone around you seems to start writing furiously straight away and don't be tempted to follow their example. 
 Finally, after the exam, don't join in a discussion about (7) _______ everyone else did, (8) _______ you want to frighten yourself, and drain your self-confidence for the next exam. Above (9) _______, remember that exams are not designed to catch you out, (10) _______ to find out what you know, what you understand and what you can do.
II. Complete the passage by choosing the best option A, B, C or D to fill in each blank
 Mobile phones release microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning (1) __________ exposure to these radio waves might (2) _______ to brain cancer.
 So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not (3) _______ us to say with certainty that mobile phones are categorically (4) _______. On the other hand, current research has not yet (5) _______ clear adverse effects associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.
 Numerous studies are now going (6) _______ in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (7) _______, these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, long – term investigation. 
 Until scientific data are more definite, it is prudent (8) _______ people to try not to use mobile phone for long (9) _______ of time. Don’t think that hand-free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in fact showing the (10) _______ and they may be just as dangerous.
1. A. where	B. what	C. whether	D. as to
2. A. cause	B. lead	C. produce	D. bring
3. A. enable	B. make	C. able	D. let
4. A. risky	B. secure	C. unhealthy	D. safe
5. A. investigated	B. demonstrated	C. caused	D. produced
6. A. by	B. on	C. through	D. about
7. A. Though	B. Additionally	C. However	D. While
8. A. if	B. for	C. when	D. with
9. A. amounts	B. periods	C. quantities	D. intervals
10. A. fact	B. opposite	C. way	D. truth
III. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each of the questions that follow
 At the supermarket these days, there is often a selection or aisle that sells just organic products. There are also many new stores opening up that specialize just in organic fruits and vegetables. Organic food is becoming more and more popular these days due to concerns about the safety of conventionally grown food. Organically grown produce, though, is often more expensive to buy. Consumers need to understand why something is labeled “organic” in order to make the best choices when purchasing food for themselves and their families.
 Several factors contribute to this higher price. Though there are some small differences, government agencies across the world agree on what qualifies a product as organic: such products must be grown without chemical fertilizers or pesticides. Also, livestock, such as cows, pigs and chickens, must not be injected with artificial growth hormones or antibiotics. These standards result in food that is generally healthier and tastier. Without harsh pesticides and chemical fertilizers, crop plants produce more antioxidants and other beneficial nutrients. The farmers, their families, and their communities also benefit from a cleaner and safer environment. Fertilizer runoff is a major environmental problem and affects places far away from farms. Their mass production also contributes to global warming. Organic production techniques encourage environment stewardship for the Earth and long-term agricultural sustainability. 
 Those standards ensure a safe and nutritious supply of food from organic farms. However, organic farming reduces crop yields per farm while increasing the labor required. As a result, organic food is generally more expensive. The price difference may be offset slightly in the future, as consumers ask for more organically grown produce and more suppliers jump into the market to fill that demand. Many people, though, are willing to pay that extra cost for organic food, given the health and environmental benefits. 
What is one disadvantage of organic food?
No one knows their effect on people’s health and the environment.
They often cost more than conventionally grown foods.
Organic foods aren’t readily available.
They don’t taste as good as other types of food. 
The word “that” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
new stores	B. opening up	C. aisles 	D. organic products
What has made organic food grow in popularity these days?
Organic products’ low prices.	
Concerns about the safety of conventionally grown food.
The increase in the number of organic food stores.
Customers’ love for organic food.
The word “result in” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
result from	B. lead to	C. deprive of	D. manufacture
Which of the following is a criterion for certification of organic food?
It must have a minimum standard for taste and appearance.
No artificial substances can be used in growing the food.
Organic food must be grown in special areas.
They must be sold at a special price in supermarkets.
Who would most likely determine if something is considered organic?
An individual farmer raising corn	C. A consumer advocacy group
Scientists doing agricultural research	D. The Ministry of Agriculture
What is one problem with conventional farming?
Manufacturing fertilizers increases can give rise to global warming.
The surplus of food grown is too large.
The market for crops becomes imbalanced.
Farmers can’t get enough supplies.
What is one benefit of growing organic food?
There is more stability in food prices.	C. People are able to eat more.
Those who grow the food are healthier.	D. The food supply is predictable.
The word “offset” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by _______.	
upset	B. worsened	C. balanced	D. destroyed
What is the author’s tone in this passage?
positive	B. critical	C. disbelieving	D. tragic
PART D: WRITING
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one. You must not change the word given
1. They believe that he used to be a spy. 	(HAVE)
He ___________________________________________________ a spy.
2. “Don’t swim out too far,” the guard said to us. 	(AGAINST)
The guard warned ________________________________too far.
3. We could not have finished our project without your help. 	(BEEN)
Had it _________________________________________ our project.
4. Mr. Meyer finds it extremely difficult to drive on the left. 	(DIFFICULTY)
	Mr. Meyer _____________________________________ on the left.
5. I’m sure he will gets a promotion very soon. 	(LONG)
	I’m sure it __________________ before he gets a promotion.
II. Essay writing
Children should be encouraged to use computers from an early age.
Do you agree or disagree with the above idea?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and/or experience.
You should write about 250 words.
———— HẾT———— 
Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm!
Họ và tên thí sinh.. Số báo danh
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
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(Hướng dẫn chấm có 02 trang) 
KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH-HỆ SỐ 2
A. LISTENING (20 POINTS)
I. You are going to hear a man phoning to ask about a holiday apartment. Write no more than TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the conversation TWICE. (10pts: 1 pt/1 item)
1. Leo Blucher
6. two hundred/200
2. Blumengasse
7. kitchen
3. 4312 11057
8. (the) beach
4. 1st
9. quiet
5. nine/9 days
10. parking space/parking/space
II. Listen to the conversation and choose the correct letter, A, B or C. You will hear the conversation TWICE. (5pts: 1 point / 1 item)
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. C
III. Listen to the recording and choose the correct letter, A, B or C. You will hear the recording TWICE. (5pts: 1 point / 1 item)
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. B
B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (25 POINTS)
I. Choosing the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences (10pts: 0.5 points/ 1 item)
1. B
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. D
14. A
15. D
16. B
17. D
18. D
19. C
20. D
II. Choose the incorrect part among the four options A, B, C or D in each sentence (5pts:1.0 pt/ 1 item)
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. A
III. Put the words in brackets into their correct forms (10pts: 1 pt/ 1 item)
1. explanation
2. introduction
3. scientists
4. possibility
5. building
6. revolutionary
7. discovery
8. appearance
9. researcher
10. importance
PART C: READING (30 POINTS)
I. Complete the passage by filling in each blank with ONE suitable word (10pts: 1.0 pt/ 1 item)
1. too
2. about
3. yourself
4. which/ that
5. be
6. if/ when
7. what
8. unless
9. all
10. but
II. Read the following passage then choose the options among A, B, C or D that best completes the blanks. Write your answers in your answer sheet. (10pts: 1.0 pt/ 1 item)
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. B
10. B
III. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answers to the questions that follow (10pts:
1.0 pt/ 1 item)
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. A
PART D: WRITING (25 POINTS)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one. (5pts:
1 point/ 1 item)
1. He is believed to have been a spy.
2. The guard warned us against swimming out too far.
3. Had it not been for your help, we could not have finished our project.
4. Mr. Meyer has (great) difficulty (in) driving on the left.
5. I’m sure it won’t be long before he gets a promotion.
II. Essay writing (20 pts)
Essay marking scheme:
Candidates’ essays are evaluated based on the following criteria:
Content: 40 %: Arguments are adequately supported (with main ideas, details, examples etc.)
Language: 35 %: Demonstrate a diverse range of lexical items and grammatical structures.
Presentation: 35%: Write with suitable style, cohesion, coherence. Appropriate word count. 
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SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
--------------------------
(Hướng dẫn chấm có 02 trang) 
KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH-HỆ SỐ 2
A. LISTENING (20 POINTS)
I. You are going to hear a man phoning to ask about a holiday apartment. Write no more than TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the conversation TWICE. (10pts: 1 pt/1 item)
1. Leo Blucher
6. two hundred/200
2. Blumengasse
7. kitchen
3. 4312 11057
8. (the) beach
4. 1st
9. quiet
5. nine/9 days
10. parking space/parking/space
II. Listen to the conversation and choose the correct letter, A, B or C. You will hear the conversation TWICE. (5pts: 1 point / 1 item)
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. C
III. Listen to the recording and choose the correct letter, A, B or C. You will hear the recording TWICE. (5pts: 1 point / 1 item)
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. B
B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (25 POINTS)
I. Choosing the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences (10pts: 0.5 points/ 1 item)
1. B
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. D
14. A
15. D
16. B
17. D
18. D
19. C
20. D
II. Choose the incorrect part among the four options A, B, C or D in each sentence (5pts:1.0 pt/ 1 item)
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. A
III. Put the words in brackets into their correct forms (10pts: 1 pt/ 1 item)
1. explanation
2. introduction
3. scientists
4. possibility
5. building
6. revolutionary
7. discovery
8. appearance
9. researcher
10. importance
PART C: READING (30 POINTS)
I. Complete the passage by filling in each blank with ONE suitable word (10pts: 1.0 pt/ 1 item)
1. too
2. about
3. yourself
4. which/ that
5. be
6. if/ when
7. what
8. unless
9. all
10. but
II. Read the following passage then choose the options among A, B, C or D that best completes the blanks. Write your answers in your answer sheet. (10pts: 1.0 pt/ 1 item)
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. B
10. B
III. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answers to the questions that follow (10pts:
1.0 pt/ 1 item)
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. A
PART D: WRITING (25 POINTS)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one. (5pts:
1 point/ 1 item)
1. He is believed to have been a spy.
2. The guard warned us against swimming out too far.
3. Had it not been for your help, we could not have finished our project.
4. Mr. Meyer has (great) difficulty (in) driving on the left.
5. I’m sure it won’t be long before he gets a promotion.
II. Essay writing (20 pts)
Essay marking scheme:
Candidates’ essays are evaluated based on the following criteria:
Content: 40 %: Arguments are adequately supported (with main ideas, details, examples etc.)
Language: 35 %: Demonstrate a diverse range of lexical items and grammatical structures.
Presentation: 35%: Write with suitable style, cohesion, coherence. Appropriate word count. 
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