Đề thi Trung học Phổ thông Quốc gia năm 2018 môn Tiếng Anh - Trường THPT Quỳnh Lưu 4 - Mã đề 401

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Đề thi Trung học Phổ thông Quốc gia năm 2018 môn Tiếng Anh - Trường THPT Quỳnh Lưu 4 - Mã đề 401
 SỞ GD ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
 TRƯỜNG THPT QUỲNH LƯU 4	 	Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
	(Đề thi có 06 trang)	 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 401
Họ, tên thí sinh: .........................................................................
Số báo danh: .............................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Question 1. A. athlete	B. argue	C. injure	D. eject 
Question 2. A. tsunami	B. medical	C. agency	D. natural
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Question 3. A. famines	B. adopts	C. staffs	D. epidemics
Question 4. A. invest	B. sector	C. knowledge	D. success
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
Question 5. ____interested in that subject, I would try to learn more about it.
A. Were I 	B. If I am 	C. Should I 	D. I was 
Question 6. By the time I recovered from the shock, he ___ round the corner. 
A. has disappeared 	B. disappeared 	C. had disappeared 	D. disappears
Question 7. I enjoy ____ busy. I don’t like it when there is nothing ____.
A. being/ to do 	B. to do/ being 	C. to be/ to do 	D. being/doing 
Question 8. Nobody was injured in the accident, __?
A. was he 	B. wasn’t he 	C. were they 	D. weren’t they
Question 9. You ___ Tom yesterday. He’s been away on business for a week now. 
A. mustn’t have seen 	B. could not have seen 	C. may have not seen 	D. can’t have seen
Question 10. Linda insisted that the newly- born baby __ after her husband’s father.
A. must be named 	B. could be named 	C. be named 	D. ought to be named 
Question 11. Some people say that in the future the whole world will experience a period of ___ depression. 
A. economics 	B. economic 	C. economical 	D. economy
Question 12. After a short holiday, he___ himself once more to his studies. 
A applied 	B. converted 	C. engaged 	D. exerted 
Question 13. Is he really___ to judge a brass band contest?
A. competent 	B. skillful 	C. capable 	D. efficient 
Question 14. We are having a ___ party next week. Would you like to join us?
A. house moving	B. housewarming	C. homecoming	D. new housing 
Question 15. You can’t lose weight just by taking exercises, ___, I don’t think so. 
A. at last	B. at once	C. at any rate	D. at a time
Question 16. Mr. Green is on the line, shall I ___ or ask him to ring back?
A. put him off 	B. put him down 	C. put him on 	D. put him through
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 17. A revolution in women's fashion during the second half of the twentieth century made trousers acceptable for almost all activities.
A. available 	B. permissible 	C. attractive 	D. ideal 
Question 18. The treaty explains the terms of the agreement to reduce nuclear arms. 
A. sets out 	B. puts out 	C. turns out 	D. cuts out
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 19. His career advancement was slow and he did not gain any promotion until he was 40, when he won the position of the company’s Chief Executive.
A. progress 	B. elevation 	C. decrease 	D. rise 
Question 20. This is new washing machine is not a patch on our old one. These clothes are still dirty.
A. to be expensive 	B. to be strange 	C. to be broken 	D. to be better
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. 
Question 21. Jones: “It seems to me that the summer is nice here.” 
– Tam: “_____. It’s really lovely.” 
A. You’re exactly right 	B. You’re dead wrong 	C. I couldn’t agree less 	D. You could be right 
 Question 22. Jane: You’re a great dancer. I wish I could do half as well as you.
- Mary : _______ I’m an awful dancer!
A. You’re too kind. 	B. That’s a nice compliment!
C. You’ve got to be kidding! 	D. Oh, thank you very much.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27. 
Some time ago, scientists began experiments to find out (23)______ it would be possible to set up a “village” under the sea. A special room was built and lowered (24)______ the water of Port Sudan in the Red Sea. For 29 days, five men lived at a depth of 40 feet. At a (25)______ lower level, another two divers stayed for a week in a smaller “house”. On returning to the surface, the men said that they had experienced no difficulty in breathing and had (26)______ many interesting scientific observations. The captain of the party, Commander Cousteau, spoke of the possibility of (27)______ the seabed. He said that some permanent stations were to be set up under the sea, and some undersea farms would provide food for the growing population of the world.
Question 23. A. which	 B. what	C. how	D. whether
Question 24. A. underneath B. into	C. down	D. below
Question 25. A. any	 B. more	C. much	D. some
Question 26. A. made	 B. exercised	C. caught	D. done
Question 27. A. implanting B. transplanting	C. growing	D. cultivating
 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 35. 
	Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature’s provision is the oldest known subsistence strategy and has been practiced for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and the domestication of wild animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago.
	Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and arctic wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing seasons have restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater dependence on hunting, and on fishing along the coasts and waterways. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies.
	Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from the observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area has become exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice seasonal migration patterns evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division of labor between the sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those practiced by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.
Question 28. The word “domestication” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
	A. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home
	B. adapting animals to suit a new working environment
	C. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home
	D. making wild animals used to living with and working for humans
Question 29. According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on ______.
	A. agricultural products 	B. hunter-gatherers’ tools
	C. nature’s provision 	D. farming methods
Question 30. In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter-gatherers ______.
	A. have better food gathering from nature	B. can free themselves from hunting
	C. harvest shorter seasonal crops	D. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing
Question 31. According to the passage, studies of contemporary subsistence societies can provide a___.
	A. further understanding of prehistoric times
	B. broader vision of prehistoric natural environments
	C. further understanding of modern subsistence societies
	D. deeper insight into the dry-land farming
Question 32. The word “conditions” in the second paragraph refers to ______.
	A. the environments where it is not favorable for vegetation to grow
	B. the situations in which hunter-gatherers hardly find anything to eat
	C. the places where plenty of animals and fish can be found
	D. the situations in which hunter-gatherers can grow some crops
Question 33. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
	A. The number of hunter-gatherers decreases where farming is convenient.
	B. Hunting or fishing develops where there are no or short growing seasons.
	C. Harvesting from the natural environment had existed long before farming was taken up.
	D. The environmental differences produce no effect on subsistence societies.
Question 34. According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers share_____.
	A. only the way of duty division 	B. some restricted daily rules
	C. some methods of production 	D. some patterns of behavior
Question 35. Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?
	A. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move 	B. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies
	C. Evolution of Humans’ Farming Methods 	D. A Brief History of Subsistence Farmi
 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. 
	Probably the most famous film commenting on the twentieth-century technology is Modern Times, made in 1936. Charlie Chaplin was motivated to make the film by a reporter who, while interviewing him, happened to describe the working conditions in industrial Detroit. Chaplin was told that healthy young farm boys were lured to the city to work on automotive assembly lines. Within four or five years, these young men’s health was destroyed by the stress of work in the factories.
	The film opens with a shot of a mass of sheep making their way down a crowded ramp.
Abruptly, the film shifts to a scene of factory workers jostling one another on their way to a factory. However, the rather bitter note of criticism in the implied comparison is not sustained. It is replaced by a gentle note of satire. Chaplin prefers to entertain rather than lecture.
	Scenes of factory interiors account for only about one-third of Modern Times, but they contain some of the most pointed social commentary as well as the most comic situations. No one who has seen the film can ever forget Chaplin vainly trying to keep pace with the fast-moving conveyor belt, almost losing his mind in the process. Another popular scene involves an automatic feeding machine brought to the assembly line so that workers need not interrupt their labor to eat. The feeding machine malfunctions, hurling food at Chaplin, who is strapped in his position on the assembly line and cannot escape. This serves to illustrate people’s utter helplessness in the face of machines that are meant to serve their basic needs.
Clearly, Modern Times has its faults, but it remains the best film treating technology within a social context. It does not offer a radical social message, but it does accurately reflect the sentiment of many who feel they are victims of an over-mechanized world.
Question 36. According to the passage, Chaplin got the idea for Modern Times from ______.
	A. a movie	B. a conversation	C. a newspaper	D. fieldwork
Question 37. The young farm boys went to the city because they were ______.
	A. promised better accommodation	B. driven out of their sheep farm
	C. attracted by the prospect of a better life	D. forced to leave their sheep farm
Question 38. The phrase “jostling one another” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”.
	A. jogging side by side 	B. pushing one another
	C. hurrying up together 	D. running against each other
Question 39. According to the passage, the opening scene of the film is intended ______.
	A. to reveal the situation of the factory workers B. to introduce the main characters of the film 
	C. to produce a tacit association 	D. to give the setting for the entire plot later
Question 40. The word “vainly” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”. 
	A. recklessly 	B. carelessly 	C. hopelessly 	D. effortlessly
Question 41. According to the author, about two-thirds of Modern Times ______.
	A. entertains the audience most 	B. is rather discouraging
	C. was shot outside a factory 	D. is more critical than the rest
Question 42. The author refers to all of the following notions to describe Modern Times EXCEPT “______”.
	A. satire 	B. entertainment 	C. criticism 	D. revolution
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions 
Question 43. Ancient people used pots for cooking, storing food, and carry things from place to place.
	 A	B	 C	D
 Question 44. Scuba diving is usually carried out in the ocean in that people can explore the underwater world.
	 A B	 C	D
Question 45. The amounts of oxygen and nitrogen in the air almost always remain stable, but the amount of 
	 A	 B	C
water vapor vary considerably.
 D
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 
Question 46. I’m not in the habit of staying up late. 
A. I used to stay up late	B. I am not used to staying up late
C. I stayed up late, which is not in the habit	D. I didn’t use to stay up late. 
Question 47. “You’d better apologize for being so rude,” said my friend.
A. My friend advised me to apologize for being so rude.
B. My friend offered me to apologize for being so rude.
C. My friend warned me to apologize for being so rude.
D. My friend suggested me apologizing for being so rude.
Question 48. I wasn’t a bit surprised to hear that Kate had failed her driving test.
A. That Kate had failed in her driving test surprised me a bit.
B. I was surprised that Kate had passed her driving test.
C. It came as no surprise to me to hear that Kate hadn’t passed her driving test.
D. That Kate failed her driving test made her a bit surprised. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
Question 49. _________that few building were left standing in the town.
A. Such was the strength of the earthquake	B. So strong the earthquake was
C. Such the strength of the earthquake was	D. So was the strength of the earthquake
Question 50. No sooner had Alice registered for the course than she received the scholarship. 
A. Alice registered for the course soon after receiving the scholarship. 
B. Rather than receive the scholarship, Alice registered for the course. 
C. As soon as Alice registered for the course, she received the scholarship. 
D. Registering for the course helped Alice receive the scholarship. 

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