Đề thi thử THPTQG lần thứ hai, năm 2016 môn thi: Tiếng Anh

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Đề thi thử THPTQG lần thứ hai, năm 2016 môn thi: Tiếng Anh
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG LẦN THỨ HAI, NĂM 2016
 (Đề thi có 05 trang) MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH 
 (Thêi gian: 90 phót)
Họ và tên thí sinh: MÃ ĐỀ THI 161 
 Số báo danh: 
SECTION A (8 points) 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underline is pronounced differently from the rest. 
Question 1: A. cinemas	B. films	 C. doors	D. sports
Question 2: A. volunteer 	B. fund	 	C. century	D. support
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress. 
Question 3: A. athletics	B. agency	C. advertise	D. celebrate	
Question 4: A. careless	B. message	C. offer	D. attract	
Question 5: A. enthusiast	B. relationship	C. confidential	D. endangerment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
Question 6: Nobody can approve of his________ to work. He is so irresponsible.
A. character 	B. behaviour	C. attitude 	D. manner
Question 7: Cathy is trustworthy. She’s a person on ________ you can always depend.
A. who	B. whom	C. that	D. Ø
Question 8: He is ________ a lot of study pressure to win a place at university.
	A. for	B. under	C. in	D. with
Question 9: If he ________ his job last year, he could have bought a house of his own.
A. didn’t lose 	 	B. doesn’t lose	C. hasn’t lost	D. hadn’t lost
Question 10: He _______ a big fortune when he was young, so he didn’t have to work hard. 
A. came into	B. came up	C. came across	D. came round
Question 11: She can’t swim, __________ she never goes to the beach alone.
A. so that	B. however	C. therefore	D. although
Question 12: Peter asked me __________.
A. what time the film started	B. what time did the film start	
C. what time the film starts	D. what time does the film start
Question 13: You ________ that film last week. It was only released yesterday.
A. must not have seen 	B. can’t have seen	 C. shouldn’t have seen D. didn’t need to see
Question 14: Jane: “Don’t forget to send your parents my regards.”
 Nga: “__________.”
	A. You are welcome	 B. Good ideas, thanks C. Thanks, I will 	D. Really
Question 15: The soldier was punished for________ to obey his commanding officer’s orders.
	A. refusing	B. regretting	C. objecting	D. resisting
Question 16: Driving in London is supposed to be confusing but I didn’t find it at ________difficult.
A. first 	B. all	C. once 	D. least 
Question 17: Would you like to go ________ with us this afternoon?
A. to swim	B. to swimming	C. a swim	D. swimming 
Question 18: _________, William Shakespeare is the most widely known.
	A. All writers in English	 	B. All of the writers in English 
 	C. Of all writers in English 	 	D. With all, writers in English
Question 19: ________ have made communication faster and easier through the use of email and internet is widely recognized.
A. It is that computers	 B. That computers	 C. Computers that	D. That it is computers
Question 20: We waited ________ at the bus stop for an hour but the bus didn't come.
A. patient 	B. patiently 	C. impatient 	D. impatiently	
Question 21: Henry would rather his girlfriend ________ in the same department as he does.
A. not work                	B. not have worked              	C. had not worked             	 D. didn’t work
Question 22: Liz: “Thanks a lot for assisting me in the presentation.”
 Jennifer: “____________.”
A. It was really hard work	B. It’s pleasing	C. I was glad	 D. It was the least I could do
Question 23: The candidates' experience and qualifications will be taken into ______ when the decision is made.
	 A. consideration B. opinions	 C. thoughts	D. review
Question 24: Don’t worry about trying to catch the last train home, as we can easily_______you up for the night.
A. take	B. set	C. put	D. keep
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 
Question 25: When you see your teacher approaching you, a slight wave to attract his attention is appropriate.
A. coming nearer to	 	B. catching sight of 	C. pointing at 	D. looking up to
Question 26: Many political radicals advocated that women should not be discriminated on the basic of their sex.
	A. openly criticized	B. rightly claimed	C. publicly supported	D. publicly said
Question 27: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively common place in recent years.
A. absolutely	B. comparatively	 C. almost	D. relevantly
 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) is an international (28) _____- governmental organization for the (29) _____, research, and restoration of the environment. The organization was (30) _____ as a charitable trust on September 11, 1961, in Morges, Switzerland, under the name World Wildlife Fund. It was an initiative of Julian Huxley and Max Nicholson.
It is the world's largest independent conservation organization with over 5 million (31) _____ worldwide, working in more (32) _____ 90 countries, supporting 100 conservation and environmental projects around the world. It is a charity, with (33) ____ 9% of its funding coming from voluntary (34) ___ by private individuals and businesses.
The group says its mission is "to halt and reverse the (35) _____ of our environment". Currently, much of its work focuses on the conservation of three biomes that contain most of the world's biodiversity: forests, freshwater ecosystems, and oceans and coasts. Among other issues, it is also concerned (36) _____ endangered species, pollution, and climate change. The organization (37) ____ more than 20 field projects worldwide. In the last few years, the organization set up offices and operations around the world.
Question 28: A. non 	B. not 	C. no 	D. nor
Question 29: A. challenge 	B. keeping 	C. conservation 	D. awareness
Question 30: A. produced 	B. discovered 	C. used 	D. formed
Question 31: A. supporters 	B. residents 	C. inhabitants 	D. citizens	
Question 32: A. as 	B. than 	C. to 	D. as to
Question 33: A. generally 	B. individually 	C. commercially 	D. approximately
Question 34: A. deposits 	B. donations	C. refunds 	D. loans
Question 35: A. destroy 	B. destructive 	C. destruction 	D. destroyed
Question 36: A. on 	B. by 	C. with 	D. upon
Question 37: A. goes 	 	B. walks 	C. reaches 	D. runs
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 
Question 38: A frightening number of illiterate students are graduating from college.
A. able to read and write	B. able to join intramural sport
C. inflexible	D. unable to pass an examination in reading and writing
Question 39: No one understood why Kevin decided to revoke the promise, but they went along with him anyway.
A. cancel	B. keep 	C. withdraw	D. break
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. 
Question 40: Norma Jean Baker was the real name of the famous Hollywood actress known such as 
 A B	 C D
Marilyn Monroe.
Question 41: Most people no longer wear the kinds of clothes that protect them from the windy, cold and rain.
 A B C D 
Question 42: Having listed in UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites in 2003, Phong Nha Ke Bang is noted for its 
 A B C 
cave and grotto systems.
 D
Question 43: Dreaming, like all other mental processes, it is a product of the brain and its activity.
 A B C D 
Question 44: When I got home, Jane was lying in bed thinking about what her boyfriend has told her.
 A B C D 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local governments. Arriving immigrants depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to help them start a new life or get acquainted with new living conditions. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, several European nations instituted public-welfare programs. But such a movement was slow to take hold in the United States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the ready availability of farmland seemed to confirm the belief that anyone who was willing to work could find a job in factories, companies or in other organizations.
Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures, but one of the programs Social Security - has become an American institution. Paid for by deductions from the paychecks of working people, Social Security ensures that retired persons receive a modest monthly income and also provides unemployment insurance, disability insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social Security payments to retired persons can start at the age of 62, but many wait until age 65, when the payments are slightly higher. Recently, there has been concern that the Social Security fund may not have enough money to fulfill its obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly Americans is expected to increase dramatically. Policy makers in the United States have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated deficit, but a long-term solution is still being debated.
In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance programs with the aim of helping the poor or the needy. These include Medicaid and Medicare; food stamps, certificates that people can use to purchase food; and public housing which is built at federal expense and made available to persons on low incomes. Needy Americans can also turn to sources other than the government for help. A broad spectrum of private charities and voluntary organizations is available. Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States, especially among retired persons. It is estimated that almost 50 percent of American people over the age of 18 do volunteer work, and nearly 75 percent of the households in the United States contribute money to charity. 
Question 45: New immigrants to the U.S. could seek help from ___________.
	A. only charity organizations	B. volunteer organizations
	C. the US government agencies	D. the people who came earlier
Question 46: It took welfare programs a long time to gain a foothold in the U.S. due to the fast growth of______.
	A. industrialization	B. population	C. modernization	D. urbanization
Question 47: The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means __________.
	A. executed	B. introduced	C. enforced	D. studied
Question 48: The Social Security program has become possible thanks to ___________.
	A. donations from companies	B. people’s willingness to work
	C. deductions from wages	D. enforcement laws
Question 49: The word “assistance” in the reading passage mostly means “__________.”
	A. support	B. commitment	C. participation	D. concern
Question 50: That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that ___________.
	A. the program discourages working people	B. the number of elderly people is growing
	C. elderly people ask for more money	D. younger people do not want to work
Question 51: Persons on low incomes can access public housing through ___________.
	A. state spending	B. low rents	C. federal expenditure	D. donations
Question 52: The word “these” in the first paragraph mostly refers to __________.
	A. needy Americans	 B. the poor or the needy	C. assistance programs D. American presidents
Question 53: Public assistance has become more and more popular due to the ___________.
	A. volunteer organizations	B. innovations in the tax system
	C. young people’s voluntarism only	D. people’s growing commitment to charity
Question 54: The passage mainly discusses ___________.
	A. immigration into America	B. public assistance in America
	C. funding agencies in America	D. ways of fund-raising in America
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
 The underlying cause of biodiversity loss is the explosion in human population. People already consume more than half of all the food, crops, medicines, and other useful items produced by the Earth’s organisms. But the problem is not sheer numbers of people alone: The unequal distribution and consumption of resources and other forms of wealth on the planet must be considered. At the beginning of the 21st century, the average middle-class American consumed an amazing 30 times what a person living in a developing nation consumed, according to some estimates. Thus the impact of the American people must be multiplied by 30 to derive an accurate comparative estimate of the impact that such industrialized nations have on the world’s ecosystems
 The single greatest threat to global biodiversity is the human destruction of natural habitats. Since the invention of agriculture about 10,000 years ago, but especially in the past several centuries, human have radically transformed the face of planet Earth. The conversion of forests, grasslands and wetlands for agricultural purposes, coupled with the multiplication and growth of urban centers and the building of dams and canals, highways and railways has physically altered ecosystems at an alarming pace. Global warming threatens to destroy the habitats of countless species, driving many to the edge of extinction.
 In addition, overexploitation of the world’s natural resources, such as fisheries and forests, has greatly outstripped the rate at which these systems can recover. For example, 12 of the 13 largest oceanic fisheries have been severely depleted. Modern fishing techniques, such as using huge fishing nets and bottom vacuuming techniques, remove everything in their paths-including tons of fish and invertebrates of no commercial use. These victims, as well as porpoises and seals that are also hauled in as accidental catches, are permanently removed from their populations, significantly altering the ecosystems in which they live.
 As human populations have grown, people have spread out to the four corners of the Earth. In the process, whether on purpose or by accident, they have introduced non-native species that have created ecological nightmares, disrupting local ecosystems and, in many cases, directly drive native species extinct. For example, the brown tree snake was introduced to the island of Guam, probably as a stowaway on visiting military cargo ships after World War II (1939-1945). The snake devastated the native bird population, driving over half a dozen native species of birds to extinction – simply because the native birds had not been exposed to this type of predator and did not recognize the danger posed by these snakes.
Question 55: The passage is about _______.
A. biodiversity loss	B. overexploitation of the world’s natural resources 
C. the effects of human on biodiversity	D. the Earth’s organisms and population
Question 56: According to the first paragraph,_______.
A. everybody on earth enjoys the same distribution
B. industrialized countries do not have impacts on the world’s ecosystems
C. a person in a developing nation consumes 30 times more than a person in the US does
D. the rich consume much more than the poor do 
Question 57: The word “sheer” has a close meaning to _______.
A. complete 	B. thin	 C. steep 	D. turn 
Question 58: Which of the followings is not referred in the first paragraph?
A. The US people have greater effects on the ecosystem than people from any other countries.
B. Industrialized countries have tried to reduce their consumption of products from the world’s ecosystems.
C. The growth of human population has triggered biodiversity loss.
D. More than half of the people’s consumption is produced from the Earth’s organisms.
 Question 59: The word “radically” has a close meaning to _______.
A. certainly	B. frequently	C. differently	D. significantly 
Question 60: Which change is not referred in the second paragraph?
A. Deforestation	B. Construction	C. Invention	D. Urbanization
Question 61: The sentence “In addition, overexploitation of the world’s natural resources, such as fisheries and forests, has greatly outstripped the rate at which these systems can recover.” means that ________.
A. The world’s natural resources can not recover as promptly as they are exploited.
B. Though natural resources are being exploited, they can retrieve quickly.
C. Fisheries and forests have been exploited and now nothing remains.
D. Natural resources can recover after being exploited.
Question 62: Which sentence is true?
A. Only fish is caught with huge fishing nets and bottom vacuuming techniques. 	
B. Huge fishing nets and bottom vacuuming techniques cannot be used to catch porpoises and seals.
C. Huge fishing nets and bottom vacuuming techniques catch not only fish but also other marine creatures. 
D. Fishermen catch invertebrates and they earn a lot of money from those species. 
Question 63: Which is not the cause of biodiversity loss?
A. Overexploitation 	 	 B. The explosion in human population
	C. World War II 	 	 D. The human destruction of natural habitats
Question 64: The passage is _______.
A. imaginary	B. informative	C. advisory	D. controversial
SECTION B (2 points)
PART I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
Question 65: “You shouldn’t sit up until you feel better,” The doctor said to me.
The doctor advised .
Question 66: The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately. 
So ......................................................................................................
Question 67: People say that he made a clock when he was young.
He is said..
Question 68: Hoa speaks English more fluently than Loan.
Loan doesn’t.
Question 69: What particularly impressed me was her knowledge of world history.
It was her .................................................................................................................
PART II: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of learning English language.
The following suggestions might be helpful to you
- communicating
- finding good jobs
- relaxing
 THE END 
 ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG MÔN TIẾNG ANH LẦN THỨ 2 NĂM 2016
Phần trắc nghiệm: (64×0,125= 8.0 points)
CÂU
MÃ ĐỀ 161
CÂU
MÃ ĐỀ 161
CÂU
MÃ ĐỀ 162
CÂU
MÃ ĐỀ 162
1
D
33
D
1
B
33
D
2
B
34
B
2
D
34
C
3
A
35
C
3
D
35
A
4
D
36
C
4
A
36
B
5
C
37
D
5
D
37
B
6
C
38
A
6
C
38
A
7
B
39
B
7
A
39
C
8
B
40
D
8
B
40
D
9
D
41
D
9
C
41
D
10
A
42
A
10
A
42
B
11
C
43
B
11
D
43
A
12
A
44
D
12
B
44
B
13
B
45
D
13
C
45
C
14
C
46
A
14
A
46
A
15
A
47
B
15
D
47
C
16
B
48
C
16
B
48
D
17
D
49
A
17
D
49
B
18
C
50
B
18
A
50
D
19
B
51
C
19
C
51
C
20
B
52
C
20
C
52
A
21
D
53
D
21
B
53
B
22
D
54
B
22
C
54
C
23
A
55
C
23
D
55
A
24
C
56
D
24
C
56
C
25
A
57
A
25
B
57
D
26
C
58
B
26
C
58
A
27
B
59
D
27
B
59
B
28
A
60
C
28
C
60
D
29
C
61
A
29
D
61
B
30
D
62
C
30
A
62
C
31
A
63
C
31
B
63
C
32
B
64
B
32
A
64
D
Rewrite (0.1× 5= 0.5 point)
65. The doctor advised me not to sit up until I felt better.
66. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately.
67. He is said to have made a clock when he was young.
68. Loan doesn’t speak English as fluently as Hoa.
69. It was her knowledge of world history that particularly impressed me.
Paragraph writing: 1.5 points
Giám khảo tự quyết định dựa trên các yêu cầu sau
- Đáp ứng được cấu trúc của đoạn văn (Topic sentence, supporting ideas, concluding sentence): điểm tối đa là: 0,5 điểm
- Đáp ứng được yêu cầu về nội dung của đề: điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm
- Sử dụng linh hoạt và chính xác một số cấu trúc ngữ pháp , sử dựng được vốn từ vựng phong phú, bài văn viết trôi chảy, mạch lạc, đáp ứng được độ dài theo yêu cầu của đề: điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm
- Sai dưới 3 lỗi về cấu trúc ngữ pháp, từ vựng không trừ điểm.
- Sai trên 3 lỗi trừ điểm (cứ 3 lỗi trừ 0,1 điểm)

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