Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2018 môn Tiếng Anh - Đề luyện 2

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Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm 2018 môn Tiếng Anh - Đề luyện 2
ĐỀ LUYỆN 2
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH 
Thời gian: 60 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Question 1. A. honorable 	B. honesty 	C. historic 	D. heir 
Question 2. A. chore	 B. change 	C. choice 	D. chorus 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Question 3. A. terrific 	B. Pacific 	C. Arabic 	D. mechanic 
Question 4. A. evaporate 	B. consulate 	C. communicate 	D. coordinate 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST In meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions. 
Question 5. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic. 
A. reasonable 	B. acceptable 	C. pretty high 	D. wonderful 
Question 6. He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime. 
A. complain 	B. exchange 	C. explain 	D. arrange 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions. 
Question 7. His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning. 
A. elicited 	B. irregular 	C. secret 	D. legal 
Question 8. Mr. Smiths new neighbors appear to be very friendly. 
A. amicable 	B. inapplicable 	C. hostile 	D. futile 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 
Question 9. Japanese initially used jeweled objects to decorate swords and ceremonial items. 
A. Japanese 	B. used 	C. jeweled 	D. decorate 
Question 10. Because of attitudes shape behavior, psychologists want to find out how opinions are formed. 
A. Because of 	B. shape 	C. psychologists 	D. are formed 
Question 11. As the roles of people in society change, so does the rules of conduct in certain situation. 
A. As the roles 	B. so does 	C. rules of 	D. situations 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
Question 1. “How was your exam?” - “A couple of questions were tricky, but on the _______ it was pretty easy 
A. spot 	B. general 	C. hand 	D. whole 
Question 13. If you practice regularly, you can learn this language skill in short _____ of a time. 
A. period 	B. aspect 	C. arrangement 	D. activity 
Question 14. Students can______ a lot of information just by taking an active part in class. 
A concern 	B. install 	C. appear 	D. memorize 
Question 15. It ________ a long time since we were apart, I did not recognize her. 
A. is 	B. has been 	C. was 	D. had been 
Question 16. I have learned a lot about the value of labour from my ______at home. 
A. credit 	B. energy 	C. chores 	D. pot plants 
Question 17. In the past people believed that women’s _______ roles were as mothers and wives. 
A. nature 	B. natural 	C. naturism 	D. naturalist 
Question 18. Not until the manager got the right solution to the problem ______ 
A. we must try by ourselves 	B. must we try by ourselves 
C. have we to try by ourselves. 	D. we must try for ourselves 
Question 19. A few years ago, a fire _______ much of an overcrowded part of the city. 
A. battled 	B. devastated 	C mopped 	D. developed 
Question 20. Juliet, remember shammed death when Romeo appears, ______? 
A. didn’t she 	B. doesn’t he 	C. do you 	D. will you
Question 21. Charles Lindbergh’s feat put him in a position from which _______ the development of commercial aviation. 
A. he could encourage 	B. he encourages 
C. encouraged 	D. encouragement 
Question 22. She started the course two months ago but dropped _____ after only a month. 
A. in 	B. back 	C out 	D. off 
Question 23. Mary eats ________ she used to. 
A. fewer meat and bananas than 	B. less and less meat and bananas than 
C. less meat and fewer bananas than 	D. the least meat and fewest bananas than 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchanges. 
Question 24. “I have a terrible headache. 	 - “______”
A. Maybe I’m not going to the doctor’s. 	B. Not very well. Thanks. 
C. Maybe you should take a rest 	D. Not bad. I’m going to the doctor’s. 
Question 25. Do you want me to help you with those suitcases?” 	- “ _____ “
A. Of course, not for me. 	B. No. I can’t help you now. 
C. No, those aren’t mine. 	D. No, I can manage them myself. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following sentences. 
Question 26. I don’t agree with prohibiting smoking in bars. 
A. I’m not in favor of prohibiting smoking in bars. 
B. I’m not in favor to prohibiting smoking in bars. 
C. I’m not favor with prohibiting smoking in bars. 
D. I’m not doing a favor to prohibiting smoking in bars. 
Question 27. She has always had a good relationship with the children. 
A. She has got a lot of children and relatives who she always gets along with. 
B. She always gets along well with the children. 
C The children have had her as their friends and relatives. 
D. She has always got on well with the children. 
Question 28, But for his father’s early retirement, Peter would not have taken over the family business. 
A. His father retired early, but Peter still ran the family business. 
B. Peter’s father didn’t want him to take over the family business despite his retirement. 
C. Peter only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early. 
D. Peter didn’t take over the family business because his father didn’t retire. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
Question 29. He is very intelligent. He can solve all problems in no time. 
A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all problems in no time. 
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all e problems in no time. 
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all e problems in no time. 
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all problems in no time. 
Question 30. We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot. 
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes. 
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes. 
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter. 
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. 
 WORKING MOTHERS 
Reliable studies have shown that the children of working mothers have no more problems than children whose mothers-stay at home. My personal view is that mothers should work if they wish. 
Some women have invested so much in a career that they cannot (31) ______ to give it up. Others have to work because of economic necessity, and there are also those who are simply not (32) ________ out to be full-time parents.
There appear to be several options when it comes to choosing childcare. These range from child minders through to granny or the kind lady across the street. (33) ________ however, many parents don’t have any choice: they have to accept anything they can get. 
No (34) ______ how good the available childcare may he, some children protest if their parents are not around. This is a perfectly normal stage in a child’s development. Babies over the age of six months become dependent on mum and close family members, so make sure that you allow (35) ________ time to help your child settle in. 
And don’t forget: if you want to do the best for your children, it’s not the quantity of time you spend with them, it’s the quality that matters. 
Question 31. A. bear 	B. decide 	C. hope 	D. expect 
Question 32. A. matte 	B. cut 	C. brought 	D. born 
Question 33. A. In addition 	B. In practice 	C. In order 	D. In contrast 
Question 34. A. way 	B. matter 	C. surprise 	D. exception 
Question 35. A. little 	B. no 	C. lots 	D. plenty of 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. 
Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the knowledge gained during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837. at the age of eighteen, Melville slimed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In 1841 Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Seas. Alter jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate that was returning to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman. With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However in 1851, with the publication of Mohy Dick, Melville’s popularity started to diminish, Mob Dick, on one level the saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of humanity against the universe, The public was not ready for Melville’s literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville’s popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is best known today. 
Question 36. The main subject of the passage is ________ 
A. Melville’s travels 	B. Melville’s personal background 
C. the popularity of Melville’s novels 	D. Moby Dick 
Question 37. In what year did Melville’s book about his experiences as a cabin boy appear? 
A. 1837 	B. 1841 	C. 1849 	D 1847 
Question 38. The word “basis” is closest in meaning to __________ 
A. foundation 	B. message 	C. bottom 	D theme 
Question 39. The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because ________ 
A. he had unofficially left his ship. 	B. he was on leave while his ship was in port. 
C. he had finished his term of duty. 	D. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti. 
Question 40. how did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville’s popularity? 
A. His popularity increased immediately. 	B. It had no effect on his popularity 	
C. It caused his popularity to decrease. 	D. His popularity remained as strong as ever. 
Question 41. According to the passage. Moby Dick is ________ 
A. a romantic adventure 	B. a single-faceted work 
C. a short story about a whale 	D. symbolic of’ humanity fighting the environment 
Question 42. The word ‘metamorphosis” is closest in meaning to _________ 
A. change 	B. circle 	C. mysticism 	D. descent 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. 
Before the 1500’s, the western plains of North America were dominated by farmers. One group, the Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily in present-day North Dakota. They had large villages of houses built close together. The tight arrangement enabled the Mandans to protect themselves more easily from the attacks of others who might seek to obtain some of the food these highly capable farmers stored from one year to the next. 
The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise considerable skill to produce the desired results, for their northern location meant fleeting growing seasons. Winter often lingered; autumn could he ushered in by severe frost. For good measure, during the spring and summer, drought, heat, hail, grasshoppers, and other frustrations might await the wary grower. 
Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of weathering adversity. They began as early as it appeared feasible to do so in the spring, clearing the land, using fire to clear stubble from the fields and then planting. From this point until the first green corn could he harvested, the crop required labor and vigilance.
In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount of the crop before it had matured fully. This green corn was boiled, dried and shelled, with some of the maize slated for immediate consumption and the rest stored in animal-skin bags. Later in the fall, the people picked the rest of the corn. They saved the best of the harvest for seeds or for trade, with the remainder eaten right away or stored for later use in underground reserves. With appropriate banking of the extra food, the Mandaus protected themselves against the disaster of crop failure and accompany hunger. 
The woman planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it near the time of the green corn harvest. After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it, and strung the slices before they stored them. Once again, they saved the seeds from the best of the year’s crop. The Mandans also grew sunflowers and tobacco; the latter was the particular task of the older men. 
Question 43. What is the main topic of the passage? 
A. The agricultural activities of a North American Society 
B. Various ways corn can be used 
C. The problems encountered by farmers specializing in growing once crop 
D. Weather conditions on the western plains. 
Question 4-4. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to — 
A. guard their supplies of food 	B. protect themselves against the weather 
C allow more room for growing corn 	D. share farming implements 
Question 45. Why does the author believe that the Mandans were skilled farmers? 
A. They developed effective fertilizers. 	B. They developed new varieties of corn 
C. They could grow crops despite adverse weather 
D. They could grow crops in most types of soil. 
Question 46. The word “consumption” in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to ________ 
A. decay 	B. planting 	B. eating 	D. conversation 
Question 47. Which of the following processes does the author imply was done by both men and women? 
A. Clearing fields 	B. Planting corn 	B. Harvesting corn 	D. Harvesting squash 
Question 48. The word ‘them in the last paragraph refers to ______. 
A. women 	B. seeds 	B. slices 	D. the Mandans 
Question 49. Which of the following crops was cultivated primarily by men? 
A. Squash 	B. Sunflower	C. Corn 	D. Tobacco 
Question 50. Throughout the passage, the author implies that the Mandans ________ 
A. planned for the future 	B. valued individuality 
C. were open to strangers 	D. were very adventurous

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