Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia lần 1 năm 2019 môn Tiếng Anh (Có đáp án)

SỞ GD&ĐT NGHỆ AN
LIÊN TRƯỜNG THPT
KÌ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1 NĂM 2019
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
 (Đề thi có 04 trang)
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
 Mã đề thi: 401
Họ và tên thí sinh:............................................... SBD:.................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Question 1: A. misses	B. goes	C. leaves	D. potatoes
Question 2: A. fifteenth	B. mouth	C. southern	D. author
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Question 3: A. contact	B. concert	C. constant	D. concern
Question 4: A. occupation	B. miraculous 	C. determine	D. diversity	
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
Question 5: My uncle’s company made a very good profit in _______________.
	 A. the 1990	B. 1990s	C. 1990’s	D. the 1990s	
Question 6: Unless you ______________ all of my questions, I can’t do anything to help you.
	 A. answered	B. answer	C. don’t answer	D. are answering
Question 7: He _____________ a terrible accident while he _______________ along Ben Luc Bridge.
	 A. see / am walking 	B. saw / was walking	C. was seeing / walked 	D. have seen / were walking
Question 8: We all felt cold, wet and hungry; _________________ , we were lost.
	 A. moreover	B. although	C. however	D. so that
Question 9: The public are concerned _______________ the increasing crime rates in the city.
	 A. with	B. at	C. about	D. for 
Question 10: Standing on top of the hill, ____________________.
	 A. people have seen a castle far away	B. lies a castle in the middle of the island
	 C. a castle can be seen from the distance	D. we can see a castle in the distance
Question 11: ____________ one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of dance and mime performed to music
	 A. Being considering 	B. Considering	C. Considered	D. To consider
Question 12: I was enjoying my book, but I stopped ______________________ a programme on TV.
	 A. reading to watch	B. to read to watch	C. to read for watching 	D. reading for to watch
Question 13: The _______________ dressed woman in the advertisement has a posed smile on her face.
	 A. stylish	B. stylishly	C. stylistic	D. stylistically
Question 14: Students can _________ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the lectures.
	 A. absorb 	B. provide 	C. transmit 	D. read
Question 15: Make sure you __________________ us a visit when you are in town again.
	 A. give	B. do	C. pay	D. have	
Question 16: The play lasted two hours with a/an ____________ of 15 minutes between part one and part two. 
	 A. interval 	B. pause 	C. stop 	D. interruption 
Question 17: When he went to Egypt, he knew ______________ no Arabic, but within 6 months he had become extremely fluent.
	 A. entirely	B. barely	D. scarcely	D. virtually
Question 18: ___________________ are that stock price will go up in the coming months.
	 A. Conditions 	B. Opportunities	C. Possibilities	D. Chances	
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 19: To absorb a younger workforce, many companies offered retirement plans as incentives for older workers to retire and make way for the young ones who earned lower salary.
	A. rewards	B. opportunities	C. motives	D. encouragements
Question 20: How on earth could they do away with a lovely old building like that and put a car park there instead? 
	A. keep	B. destroy	C. decrease	D. upgrade
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 21: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have academic or personal problems.
	A. satisfy	B. sympathize	C. please	D. discourage
Question 22: I don’t know what they are going to ask in the job interview. I’ll just play it by ear.
	A. plan well in advance	B. be careful about it	C. listen to others saying D. do not plan beforehand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 
Question 23: Tom is apologizing to Peter for being late.
- Tom: “Sorry, I’m late, Peter. My car has broken down on the way here.”	
- Peter: “___________________”
	A. No, I wouldn’t mind at all. B. Not on my account. 	C. That’s all right.	D. Well, it’s worth a try.
Question 24: Two friends, Peter and Linda, are talking about pets.
	- Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house”	
- Linda: “___________________”
	A. Nothing more to say.	B. You can say that again. C. Yes, I hope so. 	D. No, dogs are good, too. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and influenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (25) ______ more harm than good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of consumers. Presumably, most parents (26) ______ are always worrying about their children’s safety buy mobile phones for them to track their whereabouts. We can also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out on social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear. (27) ________, we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (28) ________ evidence that texting has affected literacy skills. 
The widespread use of mobile phone has, out of question, affected adult consumers too. What employee, on the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of us, according to a survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we've left the office. 
Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (29) _______. They also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations. 
Question 25: A. done	B. played	C. made	D. brought 	
Question 26: A. which 	B. whom	C. who	D. what	 
Question 27: A. Moreover	B. However	C. Therefore	D. So that
Question 28: A. indisputable 	B. arguable 	C. doubtless 	D. unhesitating 
Question 29: A. time 	B. warning 	C. term 	D. notice 	
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 
In Africa, people celebrate with joy the birth of a new baby. The Pygmies would sing a birth-song to the child. In Kenya, the mother takes the baby strapped to her back into the thorn enclosure where the cattle are kept. There, her husband and the village elders wait to give the child his or her name. 
In West Africa, after the baby is eight days old, the mother takes the baby for its first walk in the big, wide world, and friends and family are invited to meet the new baby. In various African nations, they hold initiation ceremonies for groups of children instead of birthdays. When children reach a certain designated age, they learn the laws, beliefs, customs, songs and dances of their tribes. Some African tribes consider that children from nine to twelve are ready to be initiated into the grown up world. They may have to carry out several tests. 
Maasai boys around thirteen years old to seventeen undergo a two-stage initiation. The first stage lasts about three months. The boys leave their parents' homes, paint their bodies white, and are taught how to become young warriors. At the end of this stage, they have their heads shaved and they are also circumcised. At the second stage, the young warriors grow their hair long and live in a camp called a “manyatta” where they practice hunting the wild animals that might attack the Maasai herds. This stage may last a few years. When they are ready, they will marry and become owners of large cattle herds like their fathers. The girls are initiated when they are fourteen or fifteen. They are taught by the older women about the duties of marriage and how to care for babies. Soon after that they are married and lead a life similar to that of their mothers. 
Question 30: What does the passage mainly discuss? 
	A. Celebrations in Africa. 	B. Birthday ceremonies for children in Africa. 
	C. Traditions of Maasai people when having a new baby. 	D. Activities in a birth celebration. 
Question 31: Where do people in Kenya give the name to the child? 
	A. at the village church	B. on the cattle farm	C. at their house 	D. near the thorn fence 
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2? 
	A. An eight-day-old child will be taken for the first walk by his or her mother. 
	B. Children have to learn their tribes' cultures and traditions when they are old enough. 
	C. Children are initiated for a mature life in the presence of their friends and family. 
	D. Children have to overcome a few trials to enter the grown-up world. 
Question 33: The word "undergo" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______________.
	A. commence 	B. experience 	C. participate in 	D. explore
Question 34: What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to? 
	A. the Maasai herds 	B. the wild animals 	C. the young warriors 	D. the cattle owners
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
What picture do you have of the future? Will life in the future be better, worse or the same as now? What do you hope about the future? 
Futurologists predict that life will probably be very different in 2050 in all the fields, from entertainment to technology. First of all, it seems that TV channels will have disappeared. Instead, people will choose a program from a 'menu' and a computer will send the program directly to the television. Today, we can use the World Wide Web to read newspaper stories and see pictures on a computer thousands of kilometers away. By 2050, music, films, programs, newspapers and books will come to us by computer. 
In what concerns the environment, water will have become one of our most serious problems. In many places, agriculture is changing and farmers are growing fruit and vegetables to export. This uses a lot of water. Demand for water will increase ten times between now and 2050 and there could be serious shortages. Some futurologists predict that water could be the cause of war if we don't act now. 
In transport, cars running on new, clean fuels will have computers to control the speed and there won't be any accidents. Today, many cars have computers that tell drivers exactly where they are. By 2050, the computer will control the car and drive it to your destination. On the other hand, space planes will take people halfway around the world in two hours. Nowadays, the United States Shuttle can go into space and land on Earth again. By 2050, space planes will fly all over the world and people will fly from Los Angeles to Tokyo in just two hours. 
In the domain of technology, robots will have replaced people in factories. Many factories already use robots. Big companies prefer robots - they do not ask for pay rises or go on strike, and they work 24 hours a day. By 2050, we will see robots everywhere - in factories, schools, offices, hospitals, shops and homes. 
Last but not least, medicine technology will have conquered many diseases. Today, there are electronic devices that connect directly to the brain to help people hear. By 2050, we will be able to help blind and deaf people see and hear again. Scientists have discovered how to control genes. They have already produced clones of animals. By 2050, scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how they look, how they behave and how much intelligence they have. 
Question 35: The passage mainly discusses ________________. 
 A. The effect of the futurologists' prediction on our lives. 	B. The effect of telecommunication on our future life.
 C. The changes in our future life compared with our life today. 	D. The importance of cloning in the future. 
Question 36: What can be inferred about the life in 2050 according to the passage? 
 A. Life in 2050 will be much better than that of today. 
 B. TV will be an indispensable means of communication and business. 
 C. People will not suffer from the shortage of water due to the polar melting. 
 D. The deaf will not have to depend any longer on the electronic hearing devices. 
Question 37: We can conclude from the passage that in 2050 ________________. 
 A. People will be able to travel around the world in two hours. 
 B. Fewer cars will be used to keep the environment green and clean.
 C. No one will be injured or die because of accidents.
 D. Space planes will take the place of cars as a means of transport.
Question 38: The word "This" in paragraph 3 refers to __________________.
 A. the possible war. 	B. the cash crop planting. 
 C. the serious shortage. 	D. the demand for water. 
Question 39: What is the author's attitude in paragraph 3? 
 A. concerned 	B. explanatory 	C. outraged 	D. emotional 
Question 40: Why does the author use "prefer robots" in paragraph 5? 
 A. To show the importance of robots in production. 	B. To encourage the workers to resign from work. 
 C. To compare the robots with the workers.	D. To emphasize the scientist's role in inventing robots. 
Question 41: The word "conquered" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______________.
 A. controlled	B. diagnosed 	C. transmitted 	D. caused	
Question 42: What may NOT be true about life in 2050? 
 A. Many forms of entertainment will come to us thanks to computer. 
 B. Blind and deaf people will be helped by scientists to see and hear again. 
 C. Scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how intelligent they are. 
 D. Our sources of water for agriculture will increase ten times. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 
Question 43: My brother is enough young to get a scholarship from the government.
 A B C D
Question 44: Laura expected to give her mother a hand in housework at the weekend, but she did nothing.
 A B C D
 Question 45: It’s less expensive to buy a computer part by part; you can save a few hundred dollars all together.
 A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 
Question 46: The living room isn’t as big as the kitchen
	A. The living room is bigger than the kitchen.	
	B. The kitchen is smaller than the living room.
	C. The kitchen is bigger than the living room.	
	D. The kitchen is not bigger than the living room.
Question 47: “Why don’t you complain to the company, John?” said Peter.
	A. Peter asked John why he doesn’t complain to the company. 
 B. Peter advised John complaining to the company.
	C. Peter suggested John to complain to the company. 
 D. Peter suggested that John should complain to the company.
Question 48: I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
	A. It can’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
	B. It couldn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
	C. It mustn’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
	D. It mightn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
Question 49: Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café. She now regrets it.
	A. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the café.
	B. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.
	C. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.
	D. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the café.
Question 50: The Prime Minister failed to explain the cause of the economic crisis, he did not offer any solutions.
	A. Although the Prime Minister explained the cause of the economic crisis, he failed to offer any solutions.
	B. Not only did the Prime Minister explain the cause of the economic crisis, but he also offered solutions.
	C. The Prime Minister offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the economic crisis.
	D. The Prime Minister didn’t explain the cause of the economic crisis, nor did he offer any solutions.
_THE END_