Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia Chương Mỹ A - Hà Nội

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 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to 
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 1. His plan was rejected because it just wasn’t feasible. 
A. unrealistic B. attainable C. attractive D. inconceivable 
Question 2. John didn’t enjoy the rock concert because he thought the tempo was bad. 
A. audience B. weather C. rhythm D. singer 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions. 
There are two main hypotheses when it comes to explaining the emergence of modern 
humans. The ‘Out of Africa’ theory holds that homo sapiens burst onto the scene as a new species 
around 150,000 to 200,000 years ago in Africa and subsequently replaced archaic humans such as the 
Neandertals. The other model, known as multi-regional evolution or regional continuity, posits far 
more ancient and diverse roots for our kind. Proponents of this view believe that homo sapiens arose 
in Africa some 2 million years ago and evolved as a single species spread across the Old World, with 
populations in different regions linked through genetic and cultural exchange. 
Of these two models, Out of Africa, which was originally developed based on fossil evidence, 
and supported by much genetic research, has been favored by the majority of evolution scholars. The 
vast majority of these genetic studies have focused on DNA from living populations, and although 
some small progress has been made in recovering DNA from Neandertal that appears to support 
multi-regionalism, the chance of recovering nuclear DNA from early human fossils is quite slim at 
present. Fossils thus remain very much a part of the human origins debate. 
Another means of gathering theoretical evidence is through bones. Examinations of early 
modern human skulls from Central Europe and Australia dated to between 20,000 and 30,000 years 
old have suggested that both groups apparently exhibit traits seen in their Middle Eastern and 
African predecessors. But the early modern specimens from Central Europe also display Neandertal 
traits, and the early modern Australians showed affinities to archaic Homofrom Indonesia. 
Meanwhile, the debate among paleo anthropologists continues , as supporters of the two hypotheses 
challenge the evidence and conclusions of each other. 
Question 3: The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to which of the following ___________ 
A : middle Easterners and Africans B: skulls 
C: central Europeans and Australians D: traits 
Question 4: All of the following are true EXCEPT _______________ 
Đề thi thử THPTQG Chương Mỹ A - HN 
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A. the multi-regional model goes back further in history 
B. the Out of Africa model has had more support from scholars 
C. DNA studies offer one of the best ways in future to provide clear evidence 
D. three methods of gathering evidence are mentioned in the passage 
Question 5: The word “emergence” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____________. 
A. appearance B. development C. decline D. complexity 
Question 6: The word “slim” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to____________. 
A. difficult B. narrow C. small D. thin 
Question 7: The passage primarily discusses which of the following _____________ 
A. Two hypotheses and some evidence on the human origins debate 
B. The difficulites in obtaining agreement among theorists on the human origins debate. 
C. That fossils remain very much a part of the human origins debate 
D. Evidence that supports the “Out of Africa” theory. 
Question 8: According to the passage, the multi-regional evolution model posits far more diverse 
roots for our kind because________________ 
A. This has been supported by fossil evidence 
B: DNA from Neandertal appears to support multi-regionalism. 
C: Evidence from examinations of early modern human skulls has come from a number of different 
parts of the world 
D: Populations in different regions were linked through genetic and cultural exchange 
Question 9: Which of the following is NOT true about the two hypotheses? 
A. both hypotheses cite Africa as an originating location 
B. one hypothesis dates the emergence of homo sapiens much earlier than the other 
C. Genetic studies have supported both hypotheses 
D. Both hypotheses regard Neandertals to be the predecessors of modern humans 
Question 10: It can be inferred from the passage that _______________ 
A. There is little likelihood that the debate will die down 
B. The debate is likely to be less important in future 
C. There is likely to be an end to the debate in the near future 
D. The debate will interest historians to take part in. 
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs 
correction in each of the following questions. 
Question 11: To enter the FBI national Academy, an application must be between the ages of twenty 
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three and thirty four 
A. application B.To enter C. Academy D. the ages 
Question 12: The collection of foreign journals in the university library is more extensive than the 
high school library. 
A. is B. foreign journals C. the high school D. the university library 
Question 13: The speaker introduced himself, told several interesting anecdotes, and finishing with 
an emotional plea. 
A. an B. himself C. finishing D. interesting anecdotes 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 
How do you feel when you (14) _________ an exam? Do you always succeed in getting all your 
ideas down on paper, or do you sometimes feel that you are (15) _________ a mess of it? Apart from 
those lucky who sail through exams, most secondary school students find them very stressfu.l. Many 
teachers are (16) _______ of the problems their students face and use a different method for 
measuring their progress: continuous assessment. With continuous assessment, students are given 
(17)______ to do through the year. All their marks are added together to produce a total mark at the 
end of the year. Students have to (18)_________ more responsibility for their education because they 
can't rely on doing well on just one day. Also they have more time to think over their work, meaning 
that they are able to do the best. 
Question 14: A. make B. write C. give D. sit 
Question 15: A. doing B. making C. taking D. having 
Question 16: A. fond B. suspicious C. think D. aware 
Question 17: A. tasks B. achievements C. results D. efforts 
Question 18: A. get B. make C. do D. take 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to 
complete each of the following exchanges. 
Question 19. Mary and Kate are talking to each other in their classroom. 
- Mary. “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in Australia” 
 - Kate “Uh, really?_____________” 
A. Lucky as you are 
B. Take care of yourself 
C. You are always lucky 
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D. Congratulations 
Question 20. Two neighbors Joan and Linda are talking about Joan’s children. 
Linda: “Your kids are so clever!” 
Joan: _________ 
A. Do you think so? 
B. I am sorry to hear that. 
C. No problem. 
D. Aren’t you? 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other 
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Question 21: A. persuade B. apply C. offer D. reduce 
Question 22: A. recommend B. volunteer C. potential D. understand 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part 
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Question 23: A. threat B.increase C. spread D. weapon 
Question 24: A. invented B. amused C. informed D. evolved 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the 
following questions. 
Question 25: Visitors to local museum are mostly attracted by _________ rocking chair. 
A. a beautiful old wooden European B. a wooden old beautiful European 
C. a beautiful old European wooden D. an old wooden European beautiful 
Question 26: You should make ________on the judges to win the contest. 
A. effort B. choices C. impression D. interest 
Question 27: He spent __________whole day yesterday with his friends sharing _______ memories 
we had during high school year. 
A. the/a B. the/the C. a/a D. a/the 
Question 28: This problem is too difficult for me. Please ______ me a favour. 
A. give B. make C. do D. help 
Question 29: Nowadays, most students use ________ calculators in their studies and examinations. 
A. electronic B. electric C. electricity D. electrical 
Question 30: Robert needs extra lessons to _________ what he missed while he was in hospital. 
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A. put up with B. catch up with C. keep up on D. cut down on 
Question 31: I will be here in a moment if you don’t mind __________ for a couple of minutes. 
A. waiting B. to waiting C. to wait D. wait 
Question 32: None of the students _______ to class yet. 
A. hadn't come B. are coming C. have come D. haven’t come 
Question 33: Not having fulfilled my duties, ____________ 
A. the boss sacked me B. I was sacked 
C. they gave me a sack D. my job was sacked 
Question 34: It is strongly recommended that the machine ____________ once a year. 
A. is checked B. check C. to be checked D. be checked 
Question 35: She is the woman about _____________ I told you. 
A. whose B. which C. whom D. that 
Question 36: College students are becoming less dependent _____________ their teachers. 
A. on B. with C. to D. of 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions. 
The temperature of the sun is over 5000 degrees Fahrenheit at the surface, but it rises to 
perhaps more than 16 million degrees at the center．The sun is so much hotter than the earth that 
matter can exist only as a gas, except at the core．In the core of the sun, the pressures are so great 
against the gases that, despite the high temperature, there may be a small solid core．However, no 
one really knows, since the center of the sun can never be directly observed． 
Solar astronomers do know that the sun is divided into five layers or zones．Starting at the 
outside and going down into the sun, the zones are the corona, chromosphere, photosphere, 
convection zone and finally the core．The first three zones are regarded as the sun's atmosphere. 
But since the sun has no solid surface, it is hard to tell where the atmosphere ends and the main body 
of the sun begins． 
The sun's outermost layer begins about 10000 miles above the visible surface and goes 
outward for mllions of miles．This is the only part of the sun that can be seen during an eclipse such 
as the one in February 1979．At any other time, the corona can be seen only when special 
instruments are used on cameras and telescopes to shut out the glare of the sun's rays． 
The corona is a brilliant, pearly white, filmy light, about as bright as the full moon．Its 
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beautiful rays are a sensational sight during an eclipse．The corona's rays flash out in a brilliant fan 
that has wispy spikelike rays near the sun's north and south poles．The corona is thickest at the sun's 
equator. 
The corona rays are made up of gases streaming outward at tremendous speeds sad reaching a 
temperature of more than 2 million degrees Fahrenheit．The rays of gas thin out as they reach the 
space around the planets．By the time the sun's corona rays reach the Earth, they are weak and 
invisible． 
Question 37: The purpose of the special instruments mentioned in paragraph 3 is to _________. 
A. measure the amount of energy emitted by the sun B. magnify the image of the sun 
C. block out the sun’s intense light D. photograph the sun 
Question 38: The word “sensational" is closest in meaning to_________. 
A. constant B. spectacular C. predictable D. bizarre 
Question 39: With what topic is the second paragraph mainly concerned? 
A. Why scientists study the sun 
B. The structure of the sun 
C. The distance of the sun from the planets 
 D. How the sun evolved 
Question 40: The word “one” in paragraph 3 refers to _______ 
A. the eclipse B. the surface C. the sun D. the corona 
Question 41: It can be inferred from the passage that a clear view of the sun’s outer layer is usually 
prevented by ________. 
A. an eclipse B. the great distance C. lack of light D. the sun’s rays 
Question 42: All of the following are parts of the sun’s atmosphere EXCEPT the _______ 
A. core B. corona C. chromosphere D. photosphere 
Question 43: According to the passage, as the corona rays reach the planets, they become _____. 
A. thinner B. stronger C. clearer D. hotter 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is 
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 
Question 44: Using more natural resources without degrading the planet any further is this 
century’s biggest challenge. 
A. preventing B. improving C. generating D. destroying 
Question 45: Although her parents live in Vietnam, she has decided to settle for good in France. 
A. spontaneously B. forever C. temporarily D. shortly 
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in 
meaning to each of the following questions. 
Question 46: Trung talked to Nga, “If I were you, I would learn hard to pass the entrance exam”. 
A. Trung suggested Nga to learn hard to pass the entrance exam. 
B. Trung advised Nga to learn hard to pass the entrance exam. 
C. Trung told Nga to learn hard to pass the entrance exam 
D. Trung asked Nga to learn hard to pass the entrance exam 
Question 47: It is not very likely that Angel will win the race. 
A. Angel has much chance of winning the race. 
B. Angel has very little chance of winning the race. 
C. It is impossible that Angel will win the race. 
D. Angel is very likely to win the race. 
Question 48: Kate not only works very hard but she is intelligent as well. 
A. If Kate worked very hard, she would be intelligent. 
B. Kate worked as hard as being intelligent. 
C. Not only does Kate work very hard but she is also intelligent. 
D. In order to be intelligent, Kate works very hard. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines 
each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
Question 49: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill 
A. John needn’t be here yesterday because he was ill. 
B. John must have been ill yesterday, so he wasn’t here. 
C. Because of his illnesss, John shouldn’t have been here yesterday 
D. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here 
Question 50: Steve doesn’t pay attention in class. He doesn’t learn anything. 
A. If Steve pays more attention in class, he will learn many things. 
B. If Steve paid more attention in class, he would learn many things. 
C. If Steve paid more attention in class, he will learn many things. 
D. Unless Steve paid more attention in class, he would learn many things.