Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2019 môn Tiếng Anh - Trường THPT Hồng Lĩnh

 SỞ GD- ĐT HÀ TĨNH ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019
TRƯỜNG THPT HỒNG LĨNH MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH 
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
 	 ( Đề gồm 50 câu, thời gian làm bài 60 phút)
Mã đề 201
Họ và tên:______________________________. Số báo danh:_______________ Phòng thi:________
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in each of the following question.
Question 1. A. cried B. published	C. ordered D. sprayed
Question 2. A. pasture B. mature	C. pleasure D. structure
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following question.
Question 3. A. private	B. provide	C. arrange	D. advise
Question 4. A. particular	B. significant	C. satisfaction	D. collaborate
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. She has been playing ____________piano since she was 10 years of age.
A. a	B. an	C. the	D. x (no article)
Question 6. You ________ many good choices for the future if you are admitted to a famous university.
A. will have	B. had	C. would have	D. would have had
Question 7. We noticed a very sneaky man while we________________ at the checkout.
A. stood	B. are standing	C. had stood	D. were standing
Question 8. Bruce was not promoted to a higher position_____________ he was a devoted worker.
A. despite 	B. in spite of 	C. although 	D. no matter how
Question 9. The teacher criticized me______________ making too many stupid mistakes in the essay.
A. on	B. for	C. about	D. by
Question 10. ______________the destination, everyone felt a relief.
A. Reached	B. Having been reached	C. When reached	D. On reaching
Question 11. __________________a good chance, don’t let it slip away!
A. If given	B. You are given	C. If you give	D. Being given
Question 12. The stockbroker denied ________ of the secret business deal.
 A. having informed 	B. to have been informed	C. having been informed D. to have informed 
Question 13. The crowd showed its_______________by shouting insults at the players.
A. approve	B. approval	C. approving	D. disapproval
Question 14. The house was burgled while the family was _______in a card game. 
A. buried          	B. busy         	C. absorbed         	D. occupied
Question 15. This machine is____________to overheat if you leave it switched on.
A. susceptible	B. liable	C. probable	D. conductive
Question 16. The rather humid climate in no way_____________from the beauty of the place.
A. protracts	B. subtracts	C. attracts	D. detracts
Question 17.  It is ________ impossible to tell the twins apart. 
A. virtually	B. realistically	C. closely	D. extremely
Question 18. I am sorry I opened your handbag but I ________ it for mine.
A. expected	B. confused	C. mistook	D. thought
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the followng questions.
Question 19. Primary education in the United States is compulsory.
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A. free of charge	B. required	C. neccessary	D. optional
Question 20. Tim are leaving for Canada for good. He will never live in Britain again
A. permanently	B. for a short time	C. for better thing	D. for a bright future
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the followng questions.
Question 21. He is extremely smart. He’s head and shoulders above anyone else in the class.
A. more clever than	B. superior to	C. inferior to	D. better than
Question 22. Children from affluent families find it too difficult to adapt to university dormitory life.
A. Wealthy          	B. Well-off          	C. Privileged            	D. Impoverished
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 23. David and Tim are talking about natural resources: Tim agrees with what David says:
David: our natural resources are going to be used up. I think we should find other alternative ones soon.
Tim:________________________________
A. I’ll say.	B. Are you kidding?	C. No way! 	 D. It’s out of the question!
Question 24. Peter: “Would you like a little more coffee?”	Jane: “______________.”
A. Yes, I’d love to	B. Thanks, I’m not hungry	C. Yes, please.	D. You’re welcome.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 25. Tom is one of the students which get the worst result in the latest exam.
 A B C D
Question 26. This gives customers access to a huge number of information worldwide.
 A B C D 
Question 27. Because of its ability to survive close to human habitations, the Virginia deer has actually 	A B	 C
increased their range and numbers.
 D
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 28. In my class, Nam is the most intelligent student.
A. In my class, no one is as intelligent as Nam is.	B. In my class, no one is more intelligent than Nam.
C. In my class, Nam is as intelligent as others. 	D. In my class, no one is less intelligent than Nam.
Question 29. My mother said: “Where did you go lastnight?”
A. My mother asked me where had I gone the night before.
B. My mother asked me where I had gone last night
C. My mother asked me where I had gone the night before. 
D. My mother asked me where I went the night before. 
Question 30. Difficult though the exam was, he still passed it with flying colours. 
A. Because the exam was difficult, he passed it with flying colours. 
B. No matter how difficult the exam was, he still passed it with very high marks. 
C. Althoug the exam was difficult, but he still passed it with flying colours. 
D. The exam was not too difficult, so he could pass it with flying colours. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 31. The children were taken to the zoo long ago. They still remember it now.
A. The children remember to be taken to the zoo long ago. 
B. The children remember taking them to the zoo long ago. 
C. The children remember to have been taken to the zoo long ago. 
D. The children remember being taken to the zoo long ago. 
Question 32. The water level lowered. The buried city came to light.
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A. If the water level didn’t lower, the buried city wouldn’t come to light.
B. If the water level hadn’t lowered, the buried city would have come to light.
C. Had the water level not lowered, no one would have known the buried city.
D. But for the lowered water level, the buried city would have been known. 
Reading the following passage and mark the letter on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blank from 33 to 37.
 To volunteer means simply , to be motivated and give one's time or energies to (33)__________towards a project or cause that you are interested in or care about.
Volunteering gives individuals the chance to explore avenues that would not usually be (34)_________to them. This experience enables a(n)(35)_________of cultural and social contact between volunteers and their host nationals.
It enables people to learn new skills and languages, to develop and gain experience in the fields, sometimes demanding conditions, and to develope leaders and teamwork skills. In addition, personal development (36)________ is difficult to evaluate , is one of the greatest benefits to work and travel among people (37) _________different cultures
Question 33.A. work	B. do	C. make	D. look
Question 34.A. close	B. available	C. open	D. friendly
Question 35.A. transformation	B. exchange	C. giving	D. connection
Question 36.A. it	B. so	C. which	D. who
Question 37.A. from	B. in	C. among	D. at
Read the following text and circle the best answer among A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet for the questions below. 
 May 7th 1840 was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century: Peter Ilyich Tchaikovsky, the son of a mining inspector. Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876 and 1890, during which time he enjoyed patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who gave him a yearly living stipend. Madame von Meck later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance, when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties. It was during the time of Madame von Meck’s patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most famous, including the music for the ballets of “Swan Lake” and “The Sleeping Beauty”. Tchaikovsky’s music, well-known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages, was one of the first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention had been given to the music behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died ostensibly of cholera on November 6th 1893, though there are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
Question 38. The best title for this passage could be ______.
A. “The Life and Music of Tchaikovsky” 	B. “Development of Tchaikovsky’s Music for Ballets”
C. “Tchaikovsky’s Relationship with Madame von Meck”	D. “The Cause of Tchaikovsky’s Death”
Question 39. According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT ___.
A. she had economic troubles	B. she was generous 
C. she was never introduced to Tchaikovsky	D. she enjoyed Tchaikovsky’s music
Question 40. According to the passage, Tchaikovsky’s music is most well-known for ______.
A. it’s repetitive and monotonous tones	B. the ballet-like quality of music
C. the richness and melodic drama of the music	D. its lively, capricious melodies
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky’s influence on ballet music.	B. Tchaikovsky’s unhappiness leading to suicide.
C. The patronage of Madame von Meck.	D. Tchaikovsky’s productivity in composing. 
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that ______.
A. it was not the music behind the dance that made Tchaikovsky famous
B. there is suspicion on the cause of Tchaikovsky’s death
C. Madame von Meck was one of the most famous Russian composers
D. Madame von Meck was one of Tchaikovsky’s girlfriends
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Read the passage and circle the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following questions 
In 1972, a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar to that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed.
 The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978. They range in size from the very small (less than I square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers.
The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species.
Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve System, managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves, and preserves. Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well-known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures 
on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas. whether as sanctuaries, parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity.
Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss? 
A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves
B. Various marine conservation programs C. International agreements on coastal protection 
D. Similarities between land and sea protected environments 
Question 44. The word “intent” in line 2 is closest in meaning to 
A. repetition 	B. approval	C. revision	D. goal 
Question 45. The word “these” in line 10 refers to 
A. sanctuaries	B. candidates 	C. decades 	D. sites
Question 46. The passage mentions the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary (lines 11-12) as an example of a sanctuary that 
A. is not well know 	B. was not originally proposed for sanctuary status C. covers a large area 
D. is smaller than the Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary 
Question 47. According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established? 
A. Before 197 B. After 1987 C. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established 
D. One hundred years before national parks were established 
Question 48. According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT
A. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life
 B. the preservation of connections between individual marine species 
C. the protection of coastal habitats D. the discovery of several new marine organisms 
Question 49. The word “periphery” is closest in meaning to 
A. depth 	B. landmass 	C. warm habitat 	D. outer edge 
Question 50. The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the United States? A. Limitations in financial support 	B. The use of marine species as food 
 C. Increases in tourism 	D. Variability of the climate
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 ____THE END___
 SỞ GD- ĐT HÀ TĨNH ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG 2019
TRƯỜNG THPT HỒNG LĨNH MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH 
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
 	 ( Đề gồm 50 câu, thời gian làm bài 60 phút)
Mã đề 202
Họ và tên:______________________________. Số báo danh:_______________ Phòng thi:________
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 1. We noticed a very sneaky man while we________________ at the checkout.
A. stood	B. are standing	C. had stood	D. were standing
Question 2. Bruce was not promoted to a higher position_____________ he was a devoted worker.
A. despite 	B. in spite of 	C. although 	D. no matter how
Question 3. The teacher criticized me______________ making too many stupid mistakes in the essay.
A. on	B. for	C. about	D. by
Question 4. ______________the destination, everyone felt a relief.
A. Reached	B. Having been reached	C. When reach	D. On reaching
Question 5. She has been playing ____________piano since she was 10 years of age.
A. a	B. an	C. the	D. x (no article)
Question 6. You ________ many good choices for the future if you are admitted to a famous university. A. will have	B. had	C. would have	D. would have had
Question 7. __________________a good chance, don’t let it slip away!
A. If given	B. You are given	C. If you give	D. Being given
Question 8. The stockbroker denied ________ of the secret business deal.
 A. having informed 	B. to have been informed	C. having been informed D. to have informed 
Question 9. The crowd showed its_______________by shouting insults at the players.
A. approve	B. approval	C. approving	D. disapproval
Question 10.  It is ________ impossible to tell the twins apart. 
A. virtually	B. realistically	C. closely	D. extremely
Question 11. I am sorry I opened your handbag but I ________ it for mine.
A expected.	B. confused	C. mistook	D. thought
Question 12. The house was burgled while the family was _______in a card game. 
A. buried          	B. busy         	C. absorbed         	D. occupied
Question 13. This machine is____________to overheat if you leave it switched on.
A. susceptible	B. liable	C. probable	D. conductive
Question 14. The rather humid climate in no way_____________from the beauty of the place.
A. protracts	B. subtracts	C. attracts	D. detracts
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following question.
Question 15. A. private	B. provide	C. arrange	D. advise
Question 16. A. particular	B. significant	C. satisfaction	D. collaborate
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in each of the following question.
Question 17. A. cried B. published	C. ordered D. sprayed
Question 18. A. pasture B. mature	C. pleasure D. structure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the followng questions.
Question 19. He is extremely smart. He’s head and shoulders above anyone else in the class.
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A. more clever than	B. superior to	 C. inferior to	D. better than
Question 20. Children from affluent families find it too difficult to adapt to university dormitory life.
A. Wealthy          	B. Well-off          	C. Privileged            	D. Impoverished
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the followng questions.
Question 21. Primary education in the United States is compulsory.
A. free of charge	B. required	C. neccessary	D. optional
Question 22. Tim are leaving for Canada for good. He will never live in Britain again
A. permanently	B. for a short time	C. for better thing	D. for a bright future
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23. Tom is one of the students which get the worst result in the latest exam.
 A B C D
Question 24. This gives customers access to a huge number of information worldwide.
 A B C D 
Question 25. Because of its ability to survive close to human habitations, the Virginia deer has actually 	A B	 C
increased their range and numbers.
 D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 26. David and Tim are talking about natural resources. Tim agrees with what David says:
David: our natural resources are going to be used up. I think we should find other alternative ones soon.
Tim:________________________________
A. I’ll say.	B. Are you kidding?	C. No way! 	 D. It’s out of the question!
Question 27. Peter: “Would you like a little more coffee?”	Jane: “______________.”
A. Yes, I’d love to	B. Thanks, I’m not hungry	C. Yes, please.	D. You’re welcome.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28. The children were taken to the zoo long ago. They still remember it now.
A. The children remember to be taken to the zoo long ago. 
B. The children remember taking them to the zoo long ago. 
C. The children remember to have been taken to the zoo long ago. 
D. The children remember being taken to the zoo long ago. 
Question 29. The water level lowered. The buried city came to light.
A. If the water level didn’t lower, the buried city wouldn’t come to light.
B. If the water level hadn’t lowered, the buried city would have come to light.
C. Had the water level not lowered, no one would have known the buried city.
D. But for the lowered water level, the buried city would have been known. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 30. In my class, Nam is the most intelligent student.
A. In my class, no one is as intelligent as Nam is.	B. In my class, no one is more intelligent than Nam.
C. In my class, Nam is as intelligent as others. 	D. In my class, no one is less intelligent than Nam.
Question 31. My mother said: “Where did you go lastnight?”
A. My mother asked me where had I gone the night before.
B. My mother asked me where I had gone last night
C. My mother asked me where I had gone the night before. 
D. My mother asked me where I went the night before. 
Question 32. Difficult though the exam was, he still passed it with flying colours. 
A. Because the exam was difficult, he passed it with flying colours. 
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B. No matter how difficult the exam was, he still passed it with very high marks. 
C. Althoug the exam was difficult, but he still passed it with flying colours. 
D. The exam was not too difficult, so he could pass it with flying colours. 
Read the following text and circle the best answer among A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet for the questions below. 
 May 7th 1840 was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century: Peter Ilyich Tchaikovsky, the son of a mining inspector. Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876 and 1890, during which time he enjoyed patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who gave him a yearly living stipend. Madame von Meck later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance, when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties. It was during the time of Madame von Meck’s patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most famous, including the music for the ballets of “Swan Lake” and “The Sleeping Beauty”. Tchaikovsky’s music, well-known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages, was one of the first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention had been given to the music behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died ostensibly of cholera on November 6th 1893, though there are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
Question 33. The best title for this passage could be ______.
A. “The Life and Music of Tchaikovsky” 	B. “Development of Tchaikovsky’s Music for Ballets”
C. “Tchaikovsky’s Relationship with Madame von Meck”	D. “The Cause of Tchaikovsky’s Death”
Question 34. According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT ___.
A. she had economic troubles	B. she was generous 
C. she was never introduced to Tchaikovsky	D. she enjoyed Tchaikovsky’s music
Question 35. According to the passage, Tchaikovsky’s music is most well-known for ______.
A. it’s repetitive and monotonous tones	B. the ballet-like quality of music
C. the richness and melodic drama of the music	D. its lively, capricious melodies
Question 36. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky’s influence on ballet music.	B. Tchaikovsky’s unhappiness leading to suicide.
C. The patronage of Madame von Meck.	D. Tchaikovsky’s productivity in composing. 
Question 37. It can be inferred from the passage that ______.
A. it was not the music behind the dance that made Tchaikovsky famous
B. there is suspicion on the cause of Tchaikovsky’s death
C. Madame von Meck was one of the most famous Russian composers
D. Madame von Meck was one of Tchaikovsky’s girlfriends
Read the passage and circle the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following questions
In 1972, a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar to that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed.
 The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978. They range in size from the very small (less than I square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers.
Trang 3/ Mã đề 202
The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species.
Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve System, managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves, and preserves. Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well-known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures 
on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas. whether as sanctuaries, parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity.
Question 38. What does the passage mainly discuss? 
A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves
B. Similarities between land and sea protected environments 
C. International agreements on coastal protection D. Various marine conservation programs 
Question 39. The word “intent” in line 2 is closest in meaning to 
A. repetition 	B. approval	C. goal	D. revision 
Question 40. The word “these” in line 10 refers to 
A. sites 	B. sanctuaries	C. decades 	D. candidates
Question 41. The passage mentions the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary (lines 11-12) as an example of a sanctuary that 
A. is not well know 	B. was not originally proposed for sanctuary status C. covers a large area D. is smaller than the Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary 
Question 42. According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established? 
A. Before 1972	B. After 1987 
C. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established 
D. One hundred years before national parks were established 
Question 43. According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT
A. the preservation of connections between individual marine species 
B. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life 
C. the protection of coastal habitats 	D. the discovery of several new marine organisms 
Question 44. The word “periphery” is closest in meaning to 
A. depth 	B. landmass 	C. warm habitat 	D. outer edge 
Question 45. The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the United States? A. Limitations in financial support 	B. The use of marine species as food 
 C. Increases in tourism 	D. Variability of the climate 
Reading the following passage and mark the letter on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blank from 46 to 50.
 To volunteer means simply , to be motivated and give one's time or energies to (46)__________towards a project or cause that you are interested in or care about.
Volunteering gives individuals the chance to explore avenues that would not usually be (47)_________to them. This experience enables a(n)(48)_________of cultural and social contact between volunteers and their host nationals.
It enables people to learn new skills and languages, to develop and gain experience in the fields, sometimes demanding conditions, and to develope leaders and teamwork skills. In addition, personal development (49)________ is difficult to evaluate , is one of the greatest benefits to work and travel among people (50) _________different cultures
Question 46.A. work	B. do	C. make	D. look
Question 47.A. close	B. available	C. open	D. friendly
Question 48.A. transformation	B. exchange	C. giving	D. connection
Q