Đề thi môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 - Kỳ thi khảo sát chất lượng THPT - Năm học 2014-2015 - Mã đề 263

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO 
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Số báo danh
.
KỲ THI KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG
LỚP 12 TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG
NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015
Môn: TIẾNG ANH ─ Chương trình chuẩn
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút. (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi có 05 trang)
Mã đề thi 263
Họ, tên thí sinh: 
I. MULTIPLE CHOICES (64 Questions; 8.0 points)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.
	One of the most urgent environmental problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water. Having clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, (1) ________ pollution and garbage have made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and even entire seas have become vast pools (2) ________ poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of the largest lakes in the world. It (3) ________ a rich variety of animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not exist (4) ________ else in the world. But they are being destroyed by the massive volumes of toxic effluent which (5) _______ into the lake every day. Even where law existed, the government did not have the power to enforce them.
	Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea (6) ________ 1% of the world's water surface. But it is the dumping (7) ________ for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost 16 countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles (8) ________ shore.
	Water is free to everyone. A few years ago, people thought that the supply of clean water in the world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been (9) ________ by pollution and sewage. Clean water is now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious (10) ________. We should do something now.
(Source: v14ilovetranslation.com)
Question 1: A. industrious	 B. industry 	C. industrial 	D. industrialized
Question 2: A. on	 B. in	C. of	D. to
Question 3: A. composes	 B. contains	C. encloses 	D. consists	
Question 4: A. where	 B. somewhere	C. everywhere	D. anywhere
Question 5: A. stay	 B. pour 	C. boil	D. burn	
Question 6: A. makes	 B. occupies	C. comprises	D. holds	
Question 7: A. shore	 B. land	C. ground	D. soil	
Question 8: A. away	 B. of	C. on	D. off
Question 9: A. ruined	 B. kept	C. made	D. conserved	
Question 10:A. well	 B. outlet	C. nature	D. source	
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
	Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot.
	Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.
	Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people.
	While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.
(Source: TOEFL Reading)
Question 11: Which of the following best summarizes this passage?
	A. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication.
	B. Everybody uses only one form of communication.
	C. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners.
	D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest.
Question 12: The word "these" in paragraph1 refers to
	A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute C. thoughts and feelings	 D. sign language motions
Question 13: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
	A. there are many forms of communication in existence today	
	B. verbalization is the most common form of communication
	C. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication
	D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language
Question 14: Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people?
A. Picture signs	B. Braille	C. Body language	D. Signal flags
Question 15: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here?
	A. 5	B. 7	C. 9	D. 11
Question 16: The word "wink" in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as
	A. close one eye briefly	B. close two eyes briefly	
	C. bob the head up and down	D. shake the head from side to side
Question 17: Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for
	A. spelling	B. ideas
	C. whole words	D. expressions
Question 18: People need to communicate in order to
 A. create language barriers	B. keep from reading with their fingertips	
 C. be picturesque and exact	D. express thoughts and feelings
Question 19: What is the best title for the passage?
 A. The Important of Sign Language	
 B. The Many Forms of Communication	
 C. Ways of Expressing Feelings	
 D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication
Question 20: Who would be MOST likely to use Morse code?
	A. A scientist	B. An airline pilot	 C. A spy	D. A telegrapher
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. players	B. always	C. rejects	D. confides
Question 22: A. walked	B. involved	C. missed	D. jumped	
Question 23: A. deal	B. clear	C. heat	D. appeal	
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 24: We spent the entire day looking for a new hotel.
	A. the long day	B. day after day	C. all day long	D. all long day
Question 25: Thanh Hoa is well-known for its beautiful beaches and seafood.
	A. rich	B. successful	C. honest	D. famous
Question 26: What do you like doing in your spare time?
	A. enjoyable	B. free	C. quiet	D. busy	
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 27: My brothers love ________ my father in mending things around the house at weekends.
	A. being joined	B. joining	C. join	D. joined
Question 28: Last month I went to visit the college ________ I studied from 1985 to 1990.
	A. where	B. that	C. who	D. when	
Question 29: Diana: ‘I didn't know you could play the guitar so well, Toan. Your tune was lovely!’ Toan: ‘________.’
	A. You are welcome	B. I bought it near my house last week
	C. You've got to be kidding! I thought it was terrible	D. Never mind
Question 30: Bob has a bad lung cancer and his doctor has advised him to ________ smoking.
	A. turn up B. give up C. take up	D. put up
Question 31: Jack: ‘Can I use your computer?’ Jill: ‘________.’
	A. No, thanks 	B. Of course	C. Well done	D. Yes, I can	
Question 32: The majority of Asian students reject the American ________ that marriage is a partnership of equals.
	A. thought	B. view	C. look	D. attitude	
Question 33: A number of wildlife reserves have been established ________ endangered species can have a chance to survive and develop.
	A. therefore	B. in order to	C. so that	D. so as to
Question 34: We will leave for the airport ________ he is ready.
	A. as soon as	B. during C. until	D. while 
Question 35: Did you read ________ book I lent you last week?
	A. a	B. an	C. the	D. Ø
Question 36: If she ________ a car, she would go out in the evening.
	A. has	B. have	C. had	D. has had
Question 37: Traditionally, Americans and Asians have very different ideas ________ love and marriage.
	A. to	B. at	C. about	D. in	
Question 38: Olek: ‘Your kitchen is fantastic! Did you do it all by yourself?’ Shaival: ‘No, I ________ by a professional.’
	A. had it designed B. have it designed 	C. had designed it D. designed it	
Question 39: During the week of national tourism festival, we had visitors ________ from all over the country.
	A. to come B. coming	C. come D. to have come
Question 40: The more you practise your English, ________ .
	A. you will learn faster	B. the faster you will learn
	C. faster you will learn	D. the faster will you learn	
Question 41: I will not be here next week. I am going to be ________ business in Mexico.
	A. about	B. in	C. on	D. at
Question 42: You won't know what to do ________ you listen carefully.
	A. and	B. if	C. or	D. unless	
Question 43: If you had taken your dad's advice, you ________ such a silly mistake.
	A. would have avoided 	B. would have avoid	
	C. avoid 	D. have avoided
Question 44: Rosemary Dare is a wildlife photographer. She ________ in Uganda for many years.
	A. has been living	B. is living	C. will live	D. lives
Question 45: In some countries, many old-aged parents like to live in a nursing home. They want to ________ independent lives.
	A. give	B. lead	C. take	D. see
Question 46: Mrs. Brown was the first owner ________ dog won three prizes in the same show.
	A. who	B. her	C. whom	D. whose
Question 47: I'm so hungry. Let’s go and get ________ to eat.
	A. everywhere	B. nothing	C. something	D. anyone
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
	 Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
 Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers.
 In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.
	(Source: TOEFL Reading)
Question 48. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work
A. as a researcher B. at college 
C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer
Question 49. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
A. oceanography B. zoology C. literature D. history
Question 50. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of
A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45
 Question 51. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind
A. was outdated B. became more popular than her other books 
C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies
Question 52. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us?
A. printed matter B. talks with experts 
C. a research expedition D. letters from scientists
Question 53. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea Around Us?
A. highly technical B. poetic C. fascinating D. well-researched
Question 54. The word “reckless” in line 11 is closest in meaning to 
A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible
Question 55. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily
A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food
B. a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply
C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides
D. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry
Question 56. The word “flawed” in line 14 is closest in meaning to 
A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive
Question 57. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee ( lines 14-15)?
A. To provide an example of government propaganda.
B. To support Carson’s ideas.
C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment.
D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 58: Vietnam exports a lot of rice is grown mainly in the south of the country.
	 A. 	 B. 	 C. D.
Question 59: Hardly he had entered the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet. 
 A.	 B. 	 C. D.
Question 60:Today was such beautiful day that I couldn't bring myself to complete all my chores.	
 A. 	 B. C	 D
Question 61: To attract someone's attention we can use either verbal and non- verbal forms of communication. A	B	C
	D
Question 62: My sister told me that she had met my teacher at the supermarket yesterday
	 A	 B	 C	D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 63: A. water	 B. bamboo	C. eject	D. defend	
Question 64: A. opponent	 B. habitat	C. vacancy	D. sociable
II. WRITING (2.0 points)
Part 1. Transformation (0.5 point): Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
Question 65: They are going to build a new school in this area.
à A new school __________________________________________________________
Question 66: He can’t give you a lift because he doesn’t have a car.
à If he had_________________________________________________________________
Question 67: “I’ll come to see you next weekend,” Nam said to Lan.
à Nam promised ______________________________________________________________
Question 68: My book is not as expensive as yours.
à Your book is _______________________________________________________________
Question 69: He didn’t know how to swim until he was 30.
à It was not until _________________________________________________________
Part 2. Paragraph writing (1.5 point)
Suppose you were offered a job with one of the following international organizations: WWF (World Wildlife Fund), WHO (World Health Organization), and the UN (United Nations). Which one would you like to choose? Write a paragraph of 100-120 words expressing the reasons why you choose the organization.
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO 
ĐÁP ÁN VÀ THANG ĐIỂM
KỲ THI KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG LỚP 12 TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG 
NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015
Môn: TIẾNG ANH ─ Chương trình chuẩn
(Đáp án gồm 03 trang)
Multiple choices (0.125x64=8.0 points)
 Mã đề 263
Mã đề 385
Mã đề 646
Mã đề 940
1. C	
1. A	
1. D	
1. D
2. C	
2. D	
2. B	
2. B
3. B	
3. C	
3. C	
3. C
4. D	
4. B	
4. D	
4. C
5. B	
5. C	
5. C	
5. C
6. B	
6. A	
6. A	
6. D
7. C	
7. A	
7. D	
7. C
8. D	
8. D	
8. C	
8. B
9. A	
9. B	
9. A	
9. C
10. D	
10. D	
10. B	
10. A
11. A	
11. B	
11. A	
11. C
12. D	
12. C	
12. A	
12. A
13. C	
13. B	
13. C	
13. A
14. B	
14. D	
14. C	
14. C
15. C	
15. A	
15. B	
15. A
16. A	
16. A	
16. A	
16. B
17. A	
17. A	
17. A	
17. A
18. D	
18. C	
18. D	
18. A
19. B	
19. A	
19. B	
19. C
20. D	
20. D	
20. B	
20. D
21. C	
21. B	
21. B	
21. C
22. B	
22. D	
22. A	
22. A
23. B	
23. C	
23. D	
23. B
24. C	
24. C	
24. C	
24. A
25. D	
25. C	
25. B	
25. B
26. B	
26. D	
26. C	
26. B
27. B	
27. D	
27. A	
27. C
28. A	
28. D	
28. A	
28. D
29. C	
29. C	
29. D	
29. B
30. B	
30. D	
30. B	
30. C
31. B	
31. A	
31. D	
31. D
32. B	
32. C	
32. B	
32. C
33. C	
33. C	
33. C	
33. A
34. A	
34. A	
34. C	
34. D
35. C	
35. D	
35. D	
35. C
36. C	
36. B	
36. B	
36. A
37. C	
37. C	
37. C	
37. B
38. A	
38. D	
38. A	
38. A
39. B	
39. C	
39. D	
39. D
40. B	
40. A	
40. D	
40. C
41. C	
41. D	
41. B	
41. B
42. D	
42. C	
42. C	
42. C
43. A	
43. A	
43. A	
43. A
44. A	
44. B	
44. C	
44. A
45. B	
45. D	
45. A	
45. D
46. D	
46. C	
46. D	
46. B
47. C	
47.A 	
47. A	
47. D
48. D	
48. B	
48. D	
48. B
49. B	
49. A	
49. B	
49. B
50. C	
50. D	
50. B	
50. A
51. D	
51. C	
51. D	
51. B
52. C	
52. C	
52. B	
52. C 
53. A	
53. A	
53. B	
53. A
54. D	
54. D	
54. A	
54. D
55. C	
55. B	
55. C	
55. C
56. A	
56. B	
56. A	
56. D
57. B	
57. B	
57. A	
57. D
58. B	
58. A	
58. D	
58. A
59. A	
59. A	
59. C	
59. D
60. A	
60. B	
60. C	
60. C
61. C	
61. A	
61. D	
61. A
62. D	
62. B	
62. A	
62. D
63. A	
63. A	
63. D	
63. B
64. A
64. A
64. C
64. D
B. Writing: (2.0 points)
Part 1. Transformation: (0.1x5=0.5 point)
Question 65: A new school is going to be built in this area.
Question 66: If he had a car, he could give you a lift.
Question 67: Nam promised to come to see Lan the following week 
Question 68: Your book is more expensive than mine (my book)
Question 69: It was not until he was 30 that he knew how to swim.
Part 2. (1.5 points)
Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá
Điểm tối đa
1.
Bố cục
0.40
Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc (Câu chủ đề (Topic sentence) nêu ý chính của đoạn văn
Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài
Có thể có câu kết luận (Concluding sentence) tóm tắt ý chính của đoạn văn, hoặc đưa ra một gợi ý, một quan điểm hay một dự đoán.
2.
Phát triển ý
0.25
Phát triển ý có trình tự logic
Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ,  đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của 
mình . (Nêu được những lý do về lương, điều kiện làm việc, khả năng của bàn thân, cơ hội cống hiến, đóng góp hoặc những thuận lợi khác mà công việc mang lại cho mình.)
3.
Sử dụng ngôn từ
0.30
Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung
Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/thể loại
Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển
4.
Nội dung
0.30
Đủ thuyết phục người đọc
Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận
Độ dài: số từ không được nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%
5.
Ngữ pháp, đấu câu, và chính tả
0.25
Sử dụng đúng dấu câu
Chính tả: viết đúng chính tả
+ Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết)
+ Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi
Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. 
Tổng
1.50