Đề thi khảo sát lớp 11 lần I môn Anh Văn 11 - Năm học 2018-2019

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRÃI
ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT LỚP 11 LẦN I
NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019
MÔN ANH VĂN
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Mã đề thi 132
Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (16 points)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Question 1: A. analyses	 B. bases	C. relaxes	D. impresses
Question 2: A. considerate	 B. delegate	C. appropriate	D. contaminate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word that differs in the position of the main stress in the following questions. 
Question 3: A. argument       	B. employee    	  C. category     	D. difference
Question 4: A. universal	 B. horizontal	C. potential	 D. preferential
Question 5: A. psychology B. environmental C. impossible D. photography
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answers to each of the following questions.
Question 6: _______, the disaster would not have happened.
	A. Had you have obeyed the orders	B. You had obeyed the orders
	C. You obeyed the orders 	D. Had you obeyed the orders
Question 7: . _______ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who	B. Only those who	
C. Only who were those	D. Only were those who
Question 8: My father gave me ______ as a birthday present on my birthday.
A. a digital useful alarm clock	B. an alarm useful digital clock
C. a useful alarm digital clock	D. a useful digital alarm clock
Question 9: I don't suppose anyone will volunteer, ______?
A. does he	B. do I	C. will they	D. won’t they
Question 10: The number of the people who ________ cars _______ increasing.
A. owns/ are 	B. owns/is 	C. own/are 	D. own/is
Question 11: The activities of the international marketing researcher are frequently much broader than _____.
A. the domestic marketer has 	B. the domestic marketer does 
C. those of the domestic marketer 	D. that which has the domestic marketer
Question 12: Many people and organizations have been making every possible effort in order to save ______ species. 
	A. endangered 	B. dangerous 	C. fearful 	D. threatening 
Question 13: Sorry for being late. I was ______ in the traffic for more than an hour.
	A. carried on 	 	B. held up 	C. put off 	D. taken after 
Question 14: I don’t care what you do about job. It’s no _____ of mine.
	A. importance 	B. feeling	C. matter 	D. concern 
Question 15: Please use the parking spaces _______ for visitors.
 	 A. be designating 	B. are designating 	C. were designated	D. designated
Question 16: The company received __________complaints about the quality of its products.
A. continual	B. continued	C. continuous	D. continuing
Question 17: I was just ______to go out when you telephoned. 
 A. around	B. about	C. thinking 	 	D. planned
Question 18: Don’t ________ to conclusions; we don’t yet know all the relevant facts.
A. run	B. rush	C. jump	D. hurry
Question 19: ______ the time change, it will now be getting dark an hour earlier.
Despite	B. Owing to	C. Just as	D. Instead of
Question 20: ______ one day by a passing car, the dog never walked properly again.
Having injured	B. Injuring	C. Injured	D. To be injured
Question 21: : Such 	that the firefighters could not get near it.
A. hot was the fire	B. the heat of the fire
C. was the heat of the fire	D. the fire was hot
Question 22: “It 	Jane you saw at the cinema last night. She was studying in the library with me”.
A. couldn’t be	B. mustn’t have been	C. shouldn’t have been D. can’t have been
Question 23: ________ have made communication faster and easier through the use of email and the Internet is widely recognized.
A. It is that computers	B. That computers
C. Computers that	D. That it’s computers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 
Question 24: Minh: “Sorry, I’m late Mike.” - Mike: “_____________.”
 A.	Well, it’s worth a try	B. Not on my account
C. No, I wouldn’t mind at all	D. That’s all right
Question 25: . Susan: “Sorry, Brian is not here” Peter: “ _____________”
A. Would you like to leave a message?	B. Can I take a message then?
C. Can I speak to Brian, please?	D. Can I leave a message, then?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 26: He accused her of talking through her hat and refused to accept a word of what she said.
talking sense	 	B. talking too low	 C. talking non-sense	D. talking tough
Question 27: We had never experienced this kind of holiday before and had no idea what to expect.
	A. happened 	B. known	C. noticed	D. spent 	
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.. 
Question 28: Some people still think it is impolite for men not to stand up when a woman comes into the room.
A. chivalrous	B. efficacious	C. vigorous	D. competent
Question 29: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.
	A. openly criticized	B. strongly condemned C. publicly supported	D. publicly said
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 
Question 30: Paul congratulated Anna on having been passed the entrance examination 
A. congratulated	B. on	C. having	D. been passed
Question 31: Pollution is a topic of such important today that even elementary school children are well-informed about its danger.
A. important	B. elementary	C. well-informed	D. its
Question 32: If either of you take a vacation, we will not be able to finish the work.
	A. either	B. take	C. will not	D. the work
Question 33: In an essay writing in 1779, Judith Sargeant Murray promoted the cause of women's education.
A. In an essay	B. writing
C. women's education	D. the cause of
Question 34: She asked why did Mathew look so embarrassed when he saw Carole. 
A. why	B. did Mathew look	C. so embarrassed	D. saw
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
 	Universally acclaimed as America’s greatest playwright, Eugene O’Neill was born in 1888 in the heart of the theater district in New York City. As the son of an actor he had early exposure to the world of the theater. He attended Princeton University briefly in 1906, but returned to New York to work in a variety of jobs before joining the crew of a freighter as a seaman. Upon returning from voyages to South Africa and South America, he was hospitalized for six months to recuperate from tuberculosis. While he was recovering, he determined to write a play about his adventures on the sea. He went to Harvard, where he wrote the one-act Bound East for Cardiff. It was produced on Cape Cod by the Provincetown Players, an experimental theater group that was later to settle in the famous Greenwich Village theater district in New York City. The Players produced several more of his one-acts in the years between 1916-1920. With the full- length play Beyond the Horizon, produced on Broadway in 1920, O’Neill’s success was assured. The play won the Pulitzer prize for the best play of the year. O’Neill was to be awarded the prize again in 1922, 1928, and 1957 for Anna Christie, Strange Interlude, and Long Day’s Journey Into Night. Although he didn’t receive the Pulitzer prize for it, Mourning becomes Electra, produced in 1931,is arguably his most lasting contribution to the American theatre. In 1936, he was awarded the Nobel Prize.
O’Neill’s plays, forty-five in all, cover a wide range of dramatic subjects, but several themes emerge, including the ambivalence of family relationships, the struggle between the sexes, the conflict between spiritual and material desires, and the vision of modern man as a victim of uncontrollable circumstances. Most of O’Neill’s characters are seeking for meaning in their lives. According to his biographers, most of the characters were portraits of himself and his family. In a sense, his work chronicled his life.
Question 35: We can infer from information in the passage that O’Neill’s plays were not 	_.
A. autobiographical	B. controversial	C. popular	D. optimistic
Question 36: This passage is a summary of O’Neill’s 	
A. work and life	B. life	C. family	D. work
Question 37: How many times was O’Neill awarded the Pulitzer Prize?
A. Five	B. Three	C. Four	D. One
Question 38: The word “briefly” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_ 	_.
A. without enthusiasm	B. on scholarship	C. seriously	D. for a short time
Question 39: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to_ 	_.
A. theater district	B. one-act play	C. theater group	D. Harvard
Question 40: The word “struggle” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_ 	_.
A. conflict	B. denial	C. appreciation	D. influence
Question 41: Where in the passage does the author indicate the reason for O’Neill’s hospitalization?
A. Lines 4-5	B. Lines 11-12	C. Lines 6-9	D. Lines 2-3
Question 42: What does the author mean by the statement in paragraph 2: “According to his biographers, most of the characters were portraits of himself and his family. In a sense, his work chronicled his life”?
A. His biographers took pictures of him with his family.
B. His biography contained stories about him and his family.
C. He had paintings of himself and members of his family.	
D. He used his family and his own experiences in his plays.
Question 43:	According to the passage, which of O’Neill’s plays was most important to the American theatre?
A. Beyond the Horizon	B. Mourning becomes Electra
C. Long Day’s Journey Into Night	D. Anna Christie
Question 44: The author mentions all of the following as themes for O’Neill’s plays EXCEPT___.
A. adventures at sea	B. life in college
C. relationships between men and women	D. family life
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t find the energy to get out of bed (45) ________ for school? According to a new report, today’s generation of children are in danger of getting so (46)_______ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at (47)_______. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night, (48)_______teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (49)________ anything between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.
	This (50) _____ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s ability to concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction time and poor concentration is well (51) _______. Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour’s sleep a night can have profound effects (52) ______how children perform the next day. A good night’s sleep is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep (53)______ they release a hormone that is essential for their ‘growth spurt’ (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s true that they can, to some (54) ______, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they are dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.
	By Tim Falla and Paul ADavies, Solutions Advanced. OUP
Question 45: A. behind time	B. about time 	C. in time 	D. at time 
Question 46: A. few 	B. less	C. much 	D. little 
Question 47: A. jeopardy 	B. threat 	C. risk 	D. danger 
Question 48: A. or 	B. because 	C. whereas 	D. so
Question 49: A. puts	B. gets 	C. brings 	 D. makes
Question 50 : A. raises 	B. rises	C. results 	D. comes 
Question 51: A. organized	B. arranged 	C. established D. acquired
Question 52: A. in	B. on 	C. to 	D. at
Question 53: A. at which	B. which 	C. where 	D. that
Question 54: A. rate	B. extent	C. level 	D. point
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the solid portions of the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains, elevated plateaus, and large mountain ranges. In geography, the term “continent” refers to the surface of continuous landmasses that together comprise about 29.2% of the planet’s surface. On the other hand, another definition is prevalent in the general use of the term that deals with extensive mainlands, such as Europe or Asia, that actually represent one very large landmass. Although all continents are bounded by water bodies or high mountain ranges, isolated mainlands, such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are called subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between continents and large islands lies almost exclusively in the size of particular landmass.
The analysis of compression and tension in the earth’s crust has determined that continental structures are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of disagreement among geologists surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers underlie each landmass because of their distinctive mineral and chemical composition. It is also quite possible that the ocean floor rests on the top of unknown continents that have not yet been explored. The continental crust is believed to have been formed by means of a chemical reaction when lighter materials separated from heavier ones, thus settling at various levels within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of the specifics within crust formations by means of monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate that a chemical split occurred to form the atmosphere, sea water, and the crust before it solidified many centuries ago.
Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of components that include shields, mountain belts, intracratonic basins, margins, volcanic plateaus, and block vaulted belts. The basic differences among continents lie in the proportion and the composition of these features relative to the continent size. Climatic zones have a crucial effect on the weathering and formation of the surface features, soil erosion, soil deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities.
Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary organization of layers. They are typically produced during substantial crustal movements, which generate faulting and mountain building. When continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal edge leads to the formation of large mountain ranges, as explained by the plate tectonic theory. This process also accounts for the occurrence of mountain belts in ocean basins and produces evidence for the ongoing continental plate evolution.
Question 55: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Continental drift and division 	B. Various definitions of the term “continent”
C. Continental structure and crust 	D. Scientific analyses of continental crusts
Question 56: According to the passage, how do scientists define continents?
A. As masses of land without divisions	B. As extensive bodies of land
C. As the largest identifiable features	D. As surgical compositions and ranges
Question 57: In the first paragraph, the word “bounded” is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. covered	B. convened	C. delimited	D. dominated
Question 58: The author of the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on the fact that
A. each continent has several planes and shelves
B. continents have various underlying layers of crust
C. continents undergo compression and experience tension
D. continents have different chemical makeup
Question 59: The word “specifics” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. specialties	B. speculations	C. exact details	D. precise movements
Question 60: The author of the passage implies that ___________.
A. it is not known exactly how the continental crust was formed
B. geologists have neglected the exploration of the ocean floor
C. scientists have concentrated on monitoring earthquakes
D. the earth’s atmosphere split into water and solids
Question 61: According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents?
A. The proportional size of continents to one another
B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size
C. The distinctive features of their elements
D. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface features
Question 62: In the last paragraph, the phrase “This process” refers to ___________.
A. continental collision	B. mountain ranges	C. the rise of margins	 D. plate tectonic theory
Question 63: The author of the passage implies that ___________.
A. the process of mountain formation has not been accounted for 
B. mountain ranges on the ocean floor lead to surface mountain building
C. faulting and continental margins are parts of plate edges
D. the process of continent formation has not been completed
Question 64: The word “evidence” in the last line is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. eventually	B. confirmation	C. exemplification	D. challenge
SECTION B: OPEN- CLOSE QUESTIONS (4 points)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one (1 points):
 Question 1: The film didn’t come up to my expectations.
 The film fell ______________________________________. 
 Question 2: He is the richest person I’ve ever known.
 I have never _______________________________________.
Question 3: The fridge is completely empty. 
	There is _________________________________________. 
Question 4: But for your help, I couldn’t have finished my project.
 Had _________________________________________________.
Question 5: We know that feudalism lasted for hundreds of years in Europe.
	Feudalism __________________________________________.
II. Paragraph writing (3 pts.):
Write a paragraph (about 120 words) about disadvantages of using the Internet too much.
KEY FOR WRITING
Question 1: The film fell short of my expectations.
Question 2: I have never known a richer person than him
 /I have never known such a richer person before.
Question 3: There is nothing left in the fridge.
Question 4: Had you not helped me, I couldn’t have finished my project.
 Had it not been for your helped, I couldn’t have finished my project.
Question 5: Feudalism is known to have lasted for hundreds of years in Europe.