Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn thi Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2015-2016

ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI
Năm học: 2015 – 2016
Mụn thi: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9 
Thời gian: 150 phỳt (khụng kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm 05 trang
PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (3 pts)
A. luggage	B. eommand	C. effect	D. arrange
A. minimize	B. dynamite	C. pollution	D. pesticide
A. memorial	B. emergency	C. facsimile	D. presidency
Question II: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other three words in each question. (2 pts)
A. equation	B. reputation	C. pollution	D. innovation
A. dormitory	B. information	C. organization	D. forward
PART B: LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (45 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts)
.. every part of the world has experienced an earthquake in recent years.
A. Most	B. Almost	C. Each	D. Nearly
He didn’t know anyone at the wedding .. than the bride and groom.
	 A. other	B. expect	C. rather	D. apart
When Bill saw my car, he was .. with envy.
	 A. blue	B. green	C. yellow	D. white
His business is growing so fast that he must take  more workers.
	 A. up	B. in	C. over	D. on
To everyone’s surprise, Mr. Brown  at the Trade Union meeting.
	 A. turned in	B. turned on	C. turned up	D. turned round
We had to walk since we couldn’t ..to take a bus.
	 A. afford	B. be wealthy	C. supply	D. furnish
I’d like ..one-way ticket to London, please?
	 A. an	B. a	C. the	D. no article
I would like to thank you, .. my colleagues, for the welcome you have given us.
	 A. on account of	B. because of	C. on behalf of	D. instead of
You will have to  your holiday if you are too ill to travel.
	 A. call off	B. cut down	C. back off	D. put aside
Two of the boys in the art class were doing self-portraits by looking at  in the mirror.
 A. each other	B. themselves	C. oneself	D. one another
The interviewer told Alison that she would earn $ 300,000 a year, .. she to be offered the job.
 A. were	B. should	C. lest	D. would
The core of the moon is much smaller, in relation to its size, .. of the planets.
 A. those	B. than those	C. ones	D. than are those
I gave the waiter a $100 note and waited for my..
 A. change	B. supply	C. cash	D. cost
I don’t know much about computers, so I asked the assistant for .. advice.
 A. a lot	B. many	C. a few	D. a little	
I don’t suppose there is anyone there,  ?
	A. is there	 	B. isn’t there	C. do I	 D. don't I
Question II: Supply the correct form of the words in capital letters. (10 pts)
Some people claim to be able to ................... the future.	(TELL)
Traveling in big cities is becoming more ................... every day.	(TROUBLE)
It’s ................... motorists to drink and drive.	(RESPONSIBILITY)
These days beaches are covered with ................... 	(POLLUTE)
The Government is responsible for the ................... of health care.	(PROVIDE)
I was so angry, I was absolutely ................... . 	(SPEECH)
 ................... in Viet Nam has brought a lot of big changes. 	(INDUSTRY)
The new airport will improve ................... between the islands.	(COMMUNICATE)
	The athletes take part in the Olympic Games in the true spirit of ................... 	(SPORT)
It is dangerous for an ................... driver to drive a car in the centre of Paris during the mid-day rush. 	(EXPERIENCE)
Question III: Put the verb in each bracket into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
He saves $ 500 a year. By the time he retires, he (save) $20,000.
I really didn’t expect (introduce)  to the president.
The girl got into a lot of trouble. She (not tell)  a lie.
+ 35.You (telephone)  for ages. You (not finish) ...?
What would you do in my place? – Were I (treat)..... like that, I’d complain 
to the manager.
You may feel frightened when you are in a forest .............. (surround) by tall trees. 
(write).. the letter, she put it carefully in an envelope.
+40. I don’t know what the matter with him is. He (act) . funnily since you (be) .. away.
Question IV: Find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence and correct it. (5 pts)
What is impressed you most at the exhibition you went to last Sunday?
	 A B C D
 The earthquake in Kobe in 1995 has caused great damage.
	 A B C D
Never before has so many people in the United States been interested in soccer.
 A B C D
John has felt much better when he took the pill.
 A B C D
Not one in hundred children exposed to the disease are likely to develop symptoms of it.
 A B C D
Question V. Fill in each blank with one suitable preposition. (5 pts)
Are you acquainted  the lady?
You should get  a taxi to go there on time.
Birds leave their nests  dawn.
What would you do if you fell  that situation.
They compete  each other in order to get the best score.
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts)
A fox fell into a well and couldn’t get (51) ............. again. Finally, a thirsty goat came by and saw the fox (52) ............. the well. “Is the water good?” The goat asked. “Good!” said the fox. “It’s the best water I’ve ever (53) ............... in my whole life. Why don’t you come down and try it?”
The goat was very thirsty, so he (54) ................. into the well. When he finished drinking, he (55) ............. for a way to get out of the well, but, of course, there wasn’t any. Then, the fox said, “I have an excellent idea. Stand on your back legs and place your front legs firmly (56) .............. the front side of the well. Then, I’ll climb onto your back and, from there. I’ll step on your (57) ................ and be able to get out. When I’m out, I’ll help you get out, too.”. The goat thought this was a good idea and (58) ................. the advice.
When the fox was out of the well, he quickly and quietly walked away. The goat called loudly after him and (59) ............... him of the promise he had made to help him out. But the fox turned and said, “You should have as much sense in your head as you have hairs in your beard. “You jumped into the well (60) ............... making sure you could get out again”. Moral: Look before you leap.
 A. in	B. into	C. out	D. from
 A. on	B. in	C. out	D. from
 A. looked	B. smelt	C. sounded	D. tasted
 A. came	B. jumped	C. run	D. went
 A. looked	B. watched	C. researched	D. saw
 A. in	B. at	C. against	D. on
 A. ears	B. horns	C. tail	D. trunk
 A. did	B. heard	C. used	D. followed
 A. recalled	B. reminded	C. remembered	D. repeated
 A. after	B. since	 	C. while	D. before
Question II: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (10 pts)
We can develop alternative sources of energy, and unless we try we’ll never succeed. In stead of burning fossil fuels we should be concentrating on more (61) uses of electricity (62)can be produced from any sources of energy. 
If we did not waste so (63) energy, our resources would last longer. We can save more energy by conservation than we can produce for the (64). amount of money. (65) we do research on solar energy, wind power, tidal power, hydroelectric plants, our fossil fuels will run out (66). we will all freeze or starve to (67)..
Many countries are (68).. much more time and money on research because the energy from the sun, the waves and the wind (69).. forever. We really won’t survive unless we start (70) .. cleaner and safer sources of energy. 
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (5 pts)
THE TERROR OF THE SEA
Some 16,000 icebergs are born in the Arctic Ocean each year. Most of them are calved by the age-old glaciers that cover the coast of Greenland.
	Fortunately, in an average year only about 400 of them make it past the Grand Banks of Newfoundland. Once past that point, they are in some of the world’s busiest shipping lanes. There, they are as dangerous as torpedoes. In the year 1912, when the Titanic went down with 1,503 lives, about 1,000 icebergs made it past the Grand Banks. 
	A newborn iceberg, unlike most newborn things, is bigger to begin with and slowly grows smaller. When it first breaks free from the mother glacier an Arctic baby may weigh up to 3 million tons and as big as a block in New York City. But it takes two or three years of travel before it reaches the Banks. By that time most icebergs are less than 100 feet in height. Sometimes, however, a giant one, towering 400 feet above the sea is spotted. 
	The sight of these “blocks” is frightening enough, but the real danger lies in the fact that 85 percent of the bulk lies hidden under the water, ready to cut the hull of any ship that comes too close.
	Icebergs usually die after they pass the Brand Banks and meet the warm waters of the Gulf Stream. Yet, a melted-down iceberg was seen about 200 miles south of Bermuda. It was only 15 by 30 feet in size. But remember almost nine times that size was hiding under the water. It was still big enough to sink a ship.
	Time, sun and the Gulf Stream slowly change the icebergs to water, but, while they live, they are a hazard to the strongest ship and a terror to the bravest captain.
 This article tells mostly about .
	A. ships sunk by icebergs	B. how icebergs are spotted
	C. dangerous icebergs	D. ships built for destroying icebergs
About 85 percent of the iceberg is 
 	A. under the water	B. frozen freshwater
	C. left on the glacier	D. above the water
The third paragraph suggests that icebergs
	A. grow bigger with age	B. travel very slowly
	C. move quite rapidly	D. are not too dangerous
The writer of this passage feels icebergs are as dangerous as 
	A. explosives	B. hidden submarines
	C. a bomb	D. a weapon
As used in this passage, to calve means
	A. to break away from	B. to be attracted to
	C. to push off	D. to be a part of
PART D: WRITING (25 pts)
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 pts) 
You really should learn to drive.
 	-> It is high..
I can’t help laughing at his funny face.
-> I find it difficult ....................................................................................................
 A famous architect designed their new home.
	-> They had ........
 “OK. It was my mistake. I’m sorry.” Paul said.
-> Paul admitted..........................................................................................................
 I hardly travelled abroad when I was a student.
	-> Rarely ........
 Not until they leave will she begin cleaning the house.
	-> She will only .
 People think the jewels were stolen by one of the guests.
-> One of the guests	...................................................................................................
 Robert has not had a job for two years.
-> Robert has been......................................................................................................
 “I’m sorry that I didn’t phone yesterday,” said Gary.
	-> Gary ...................
 The garage is too small for the van.
	-> There is not enough
Question II: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. DO NOT change the word given. (5 pts)
The film I saw last week was better than this one. 	(GOOD)
	-> This film ...................................... the one I saw last week .
 Tim looks nothing like his father. 	(TAKE)
	-> Tim .............................................. his father at all.
 I fell asleep as the film was so boring. 	(SUCH)
-> It was ............................................................................ I fell asleep. 
Thanks to her mother’s encouragement, she entered the beauty contest. (HAD)
-> Had
When I get home, I’m going to have a shower straight away. 	(SOON)
-> I’m going ..
Question III: Write a passage about 120- 150 words to give your own opinion of topic: "physical exercises are very useful to our health". (10 pts)
-----THE END-----
PHềNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐễNG SƠN
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
ĐÁP ÁN + HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI
Năm học: 2018 – 2019
Mụn thi: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9 
Thời gian: 150 phỳt (khụng kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐÁP ÁN
PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question II: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other three words in each question. (3pts)
1. A. luggage	 2. C. pollution	3. D. presidency
Question I: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (2 pts)
 	4. A. equation	5. B. information
PART B: LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (45 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (20 pts)
6. B. Almost
7. A. other
8. B. green
9. D. on
10. C. turned up
11. A. afford
12. B. a
13. C. on behalf of
14. A. call off
15. B. themselves
16. A. were
17. B. than those
18. A. change
19. D. a little
20. A. is there 
Question II: Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 pts)
21. FORETELL	
22. POLLUTANTS	
23. INDUSTRILIZ(S)ATION
24. TROUBLESOME
25. PROVISION
26. COMMUNICATIONS	
27. IRRESPONSIBLE
28. SPEECHLESS
29. SPORTSMANSHIP	
30. INEXPERIENCED
Question III: Put the verb in each bracket into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
31. will have saved	 	
36. to be introduced	
32. shouldn't have told	
33. have been telephoning	
34. Haven’tfinished	
35. to be treated
37. surrounded	
38. Having written	
39. has been acting 
40. have been
Question IV: Find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence and correct it. (5 pts)
41. A-> What impressed	42. C-> caused	 43. A → have 
44. C-> since	 45. B à is
Question IV. Fill in each blank with one suitable preposition. (5 points)
46. with          	47. in                 	48. at
49. into         50. against
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts)
51. C	52. B 	53. D 	54. B 	55. A	
56. C 	57. B 	58. D	59. B	60. D
Question II: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (10 pts)
61. economical	62. which/ that	 63. much 	64. Same	65. Unless 	
66. and	 67. death 	68. spending 	69. lasts	70. using/ developing
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (5 pts)
71. C 	72. A 	73. B	74. D 	75. A
PART D: WRITING (25 pts)
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 pts) 
76. It is high time you learned to drive/ for you to learn to drive.
77. I find it difficult not to laugh at his funny face.
78. They had their new home designed by a famous architect./ They had a famous architect 
design their new home.
79. Paul admitted that it was his mistake and apologized.	
80. Rarely did I travel abroad when I was a student.
81. She will only begin cleaning the house after they have left.
82. One of the guests is thought to have stolen the jewels.
83. Robert has been out of job/jobless/unemployed for two years.
84. Gary apologized for not phoning the previous day.
85. There is not enough room for the van in the garage.
Question II: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. DO NOT change the word given. (5 pts)
86. isn’t as/so good as
87. doesn’t take after
88. It was such a boring film that I fell asleep. 
89. Had it not been for her mother’s encouragement, she wouldn’t have entered the beauty contest.
90. I’m going to have a shower as soon as I get home.
Question III: (10 pts) 
Marking criteria: 
- Organization 
Bố cục bài luận rừ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thõn bài, kết luận (1 đ)
- Cohesion 
Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết cõu, chuyển mạch tốt (3đ)
- Accuracy (morphology, vocabulary, spelling)
Cú sự chớnh xỏc trong việc sử dụng cấu trỳc cõu, ngữ phỏp, từ vựng; cõu linh hoạt (đơn, phức..) (2đ)
- Ideas 
í hay, phong phỳ, biểu đạt nội dung liờn quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề ( 3đ)
- Length 
Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định: khụng quỏ dài hoặc quỏ ngắn. (1đ)
B. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
	- Tổng điểm toàn bài là 100 điểm, mỗi cõu trả lời đỳng được 0.2 điểm.
- Quy đổi điểm bài thi về thang điểm 20.
Điểm bài thi =
Tổng số cõu đỳng
 5
-----THE END-----
PHềNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
	 Mụn thi: TIẾNG ANH
 Thời gian: 150 phỳt, khụng kể thời gian giao đề
 Ngày thi: 
 Đề thi cú 05 trang.
PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (3 pts)
1. A. coughs
B. photoghraphs
C. gas
D. laughs
2. A. exhibit
B. exhibition
C. example
D. existence	
3. A. history
B. astronomy
C. introduce
D. ceremony
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (2 pts) 
A. practicality 
B. politician 
C. uncontrollable 
D. reality
A. managerial 
B. determination 
C. unbelievable 
D. inability
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 pts)
QUESTION I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. ( 15 points )
1. ___________ from John, all the students said they would go.
A. Except 
B. Only 
C. Apart 
D. Separate
2. If you work for us, you’ll get somewhere to live _____ free.
A. for 
B. at 
C. out 
D. of
3. The new manager explained to the staff that she hoped to _____ new procedures to save time and money.
A. manufacture 
B. establish 
C. control 
D. restore
4. They took pride _______ being the best players of the school.
A. in 
B. with 
C. on 
D. for
5. She’d prefer to go out ________ home.
A. than to stay 
B. than staying 
C. rather than staying 
D. rather than stay 
6. They received _______ advice from their parents that they became successful.
A. so good 
B. such a good 
C. so good an 
D. such good
7. Have you got a car ________ ?
A. of your own 
B. of yourself 
C. of you 
D. of your
8. There is a fault at our television station. Please do not ______ your television set.
A. change 
B. adjust 
C. repair 
D. switch
9. If you want to attend the course, you must pass the ................... examination.
A. write 
B. written 
C. wrote 
D. writing
10. Either Peter and his brothers _______ the keys to the car.
A. has been taken 
B. has taken 
C. have taken 
D. have been taken 
11. We can tell you that we often have a friendly _______ in our class.
A. atmosphere 
B. air 
C. matter 
D. impression
12. These clothes are fashionable and _______ . Do you agree with me?
A. only 
B. merely 
C. unique 
D. uniquely
13. He _______ to have a very big fortune and a beautiful wife.
A. rumors 
B. rumored 
C. has rumored 
D. was rumored
14. Did you use to do a _______ when you were at the university.
A. full-time job 
B. part-time 
C. full-time 
D. part-time job 
15. My house is just _______ . I live in the nearby neighborhood.
A. near here 
B. near to 
C. near by 
D. near from
QUESTION II. Use the verbs in brackets in the correct tense or form (10 points) 
1. His brother ________ (give) a car for his twentieth birthday next year. 
2. The house was very quiet when I got home. Everybody______ (go) to bed. 
3. Less than half of the cans of paint ______ (use) up to now. 
4. (Write)________ the letter, she put it carefully in an envelope. 
5-6. Can you imagine what I _______ (come) across when I _______ (roll) up the carpet yesterday. 
7. He talked as if he ______ (know) where she was. 
8. If you go to England, you’ll have to get used to ________ (drive) on the left. 
9. You may feel frightened when you are in a forest ______ (surround) by tall trees. 
10. – You have just missed the bus. – All right. I _______ (walk). 
QUESTION III: Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 pts)
1. He’s a university student majoring in ... (CLIMATE)
2. To be completely fair, we need a(n) . person. (INTEREST)
3. His busy schedule made him completely  to his students. (ACCESS)
4. These materials are highly . .	 (FLAME)
5. Many .. have been built since the end of the war.	 (MEMORY)
6. After working really hard for the examination, he deserved a(n)  holiday. (EARN)
7. They were so alike; it’s sometimes impossible to .. between them. 
 (DIFFERENT)
8. That guy is absolutely  as you never know what he is going to do or say. 	 (PREDICT)
9. The differences between British English and American English are small. 	 (COMPARE)
10. The tendency now is to .. our cell phone ring tones. (PERSON)
Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form.(10 pts)
1. (Write) the letter, she put it carefully in an envelope.
2. We regret (say) that the TV program last night was very dull and wasn’t worth (watch)
3. I really didn’t expect (introduce) to the president.
4. The girl got into a lot of trouble. She (not, tell) a lie.
5. I appreciate (tell) the news.
6. The sunlight (come) through the window (wake) me up early every morning.
7. Nobody would listen to the stories (tell) by him so many times.
8. I lit the fire at 7.00 and it (burn) brightly when Jack came in at 8.00.
QUESTION IV: Complete each sentence with the most suitable preposition. (5 pts)
1. The injured man had to be taken to hospital  delay. 
2. It was a good beginning, but .. a while things started to slow down.
3. Plans for the trip are still . discussion. 
4. People sometimes try to live  society by buying small farms, growing all their own food and try to be self-sufficient. 
5. Coffee shops will always be popular  retired people. 
PART C: READING (30 Points)
QUESTION I. Fill in each gap in the following with ONE suitable word (10Points)
 Hanoi’s Old Quarter was established hundreds of years ago on the east (1.....) of the ancient Thang Long citadel. In the old days, the Old Quarter, a system of narrow streets, (2....................) and houses, was home to several guilds such as bronze casting, forging (3.......................) making, wood carving, silk and clothes trading. Small, beautifully styled house built long with a (4...........................) local culture. Streets in the Old Quarter still have (5) describing their original goods or craft, for example Hang Bac or “Silver Street”. The ground-floor shops of the houses here now sell (6..), fine arts and food. But the quarter also has a number of pagodas temples, historical (7 .....), and festivals dedicated to the founders of some the local crafts. Now, many guild streets, (8..) Hang Quat street, don’t make (9....) anymore, but they are remembered as craft streets. The architecture and lifestyle of the local people reflect typical (10) of traditional guild streets in Ha Noi.
QUESTION II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.(10 points)
When I was a boy, children always objected to (56) ............. school uniform but teachers were keen on it because they said all of us looked (57) ............. . Otherwise, they said, children would complete with each other and the poorer children would be unhappy because people would see straight away (58) ............... In recent years, however, many schools have (59) ................. the idea of making children wear uniform but, funnily enough, now that children can wear what they like, they have adopted (60) ............. . When some journalists visited a (61) .............. , they found that all the boys and girls were dressed (62) ................ jeans. One girl said she would rather (63) ................. wear a coat instead of a jersey because no one wants to look different from the other children in the class. Parents may not be as happy about this as children, but they (64) ............... , because this new kind of uniform is one that the children like, not something they have been forced to wear, and it is also (65) ............... than school uniforms used to be.
1. A. wearing	B. dressing	C. wear	D. dress
2. A. like	B. to be like	C. alike	D. to be alike
3. A. what poor they are	B. what poor they were 
 C. how poor they are 	D. how poor they were
4. A. left over	B. taken off	C. put off	D. given up
5. A. an own uniform	 B. a uniform of their own	
 C. a proper uniform	 D. a uniform of his own
6. A. London school	 B. London’s school	
 C. school of London	 D. school at London
7. A. on	B. by	C. in	D. which
8. A. to die than	B. to die that	C. die that	D. die than
9. A. ought	B. should	C. had	D. would
10. A. much more cheaper	B. much more 	C. much cheaper	D. more cheaper
QUESTION III. Read the passage, Then choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete the following sentences. (5 Points)
 Over the past six hundreds years, English has grown from a language of new speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having the Norman invasion of 1030. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
 Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two- thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world. . 
 1. Which is the best the title for the passage?
A. The number of non-native users of English.
B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an international language.
D. The use of English for science and technology.
 2. Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?
A. In 1066. B. Around 1350.
C. Before 1600. D. After the 1600s.
 3. According to the passage, which of the following contributed to the spread of the English around the world EXCEPT ?
A. the slave B. the Norman invasion
C. missionaries D. colonization
 4. The word “enclaves” in the passage could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. communities B. organizations
C. regions D. countries
 5. The word “proliferated” in the passage is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. prospered B. organized
D. disbanded D. expanded
QUESTION IV. Read the story carefully and choose the correct answer (5 points)
Baby
It was a beautiful spring day: the sun was shining, the sky was blue. In the centre of London a policeman cried. He saw a man with a big lion. They were walking down the street.
	“Hey, you!” he said. “What are you doing here with this lion? You can’t walk around the streets with a lion. Take it to the Zoo !”
	“OK, officer. I want to show Baby the town.”
	The man opened the door of his car and the lion jumped in. The car went away.
	The next day the police officer saw the same man and the same lion again.
	“Hey, you!” he said.” Come over here! And bring that lion with you!”
	The man took the lion to the police officer.
	“What’s the problem, officer?”
	“Problem? I told you yesterday to take the lion to the Zoo!”
	“Oh, I did, officer, I took Baby to the Zoo. He enjoyed it very much. But today, I am taking him to the swimming pool !”
1. 	A. It wasn’t raining that day.
	B. A policeman saw a man with a dog in the centre of New York.
	C. The man and his pet were walking along the park.
	D. The man didn’t have a car.
2.	A. The lion couldn’t get into the car, the lion was too big.
	B. The policeman took the lion to the Zoo and put the lion into the cage.
	C. The man showed his pet the Zoo.
	D. The policeman was happy to see a man with a lion in the centre of London.
3. 	A. The man had a baby. It was a nice girl of three.
B. Baby was the lion’s name.
C. The policeman told the man to show Baby the town.
D. The lion visited the London Zoo.
4. 	A. The man could drive a car.
B. The lion didn’t like the Zoo at all.
	C. The policeman took the lion to the swimming pool.
	D. The policeman met people with lions in London streets every day.
5. 	A. The lion was the man’s pet.
	B. The man had a baby lion as a pet.
	C. The policeman showed the park and the school to the lion.
	D. When the policeman saw the man with the lion he got very hungry.
PART D : WRITING ( 25 points )
QUESTION I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. ( 10 points )
1. It’s not a good idea to travel during the rush hour.
 đ It’s better to avoid ..............................................................................
2. People think that the owner of that house is abroad
à The owner ...	
3. She didn’t know the way, so she asked a policeman.
à Not ...	
4. The baby cries because the lion looks fierce. 
à The baby cries because of.	
5. John only understood very little what the teacher said.
à John could hardly....................................................................................................
6. I tried as hard as I could, but I just couldn’t get the money.
à No matter ....................................