SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO QUẢNG NAM KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 THPT CẤP TỈNH Năm học: 2020 – 2021 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Đề thi gồm có 10 trang) Môn thi : TIẾNG ANH Mã đề thi: 246 Thời gian : 90 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi : 12/3/2021 (Thí sinh làm bài trên Phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm) Họ và tên thí sinh:.Phòng thi Số báo danh: SECTION I: LISTENING HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU Mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần có tín hiệu. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. Part 1: You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1- 8, mark the letter A, B, or C on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: You will hear someone talking about an activity. Why does she like the activity? A. Because it's very demanding. B. Because young people do it. C. Because age is not a restriction. Question 2: You will hear an architect talking about her work. What problem does she describe? A. Getting blocked on an idea. B. Getting new ideas. C. Applying the ideas she has. Question 3: You will hear someone talking about an event in nature. What is she doing? A. Explaining why a problem exists. B. Describing a situation. C. Trying to persuade someone to do something. Question 4: You will hear someone talking about a night out in a restaurant. What is the speaker saying? A. She will never go back. B. She will tell her friends about it. C. She is going to be nice to someone. Question 5: You will hear someone having a conversation. How does the woman feel? A. Irritated. B. Worried. C. Excited. Question 6: You will hear someone talking about cooking. What is important to her? A. Knowing what she has to cook. B. Knowing where things are. C. Knowing the quality of the ingredients. Question 7: You will hear someone in business talking about expanding. What problem is she describing? A. Getting the right price. B. Getting the right location. C. Getting a good location at the right price. Question 8: You will hear someone talking about a sporting activity. What is she describing? A. Why she took up the activity. B. Why she enjoys it. C. Why other people would enjoy it. Part 2: You hear a conversation with Andrea Thompson who is Britain's strongest woman. For questions 9-15 choose the best answer A, B or C. You will hear the recording twice. Question 9: When asked how strong she is, Andrea explains________. A. that she could lift a big animal B. that she could lift a vehicle C. that she could pull a hippo Question 10: How does Andrea describe her feeling towards sport as a kid? A. She had no interest in sport at that time. B. She enjoyed some events, but was not really convinced. C. She was always passionate about sport. Question 11: Andrea says her initial reason for getting involved in weight lifting was ________. A. to motivate her younger sister B. to compete with her older sister C. to support her sister's attempt to lose weight Question 12: How did Andrea feel when some men refused to train with her? A. She didn't care because she was enjoying herself. B. She felt humiliated. C. She felt she had something to prove. Question 13: Andrea explains that when she entered the strong woman competition in 2015, ________. A. she was well-informed because she had done her research. B. she had a lot of experience. C. she knew next to nothing about the details. Question 14: How did the coach she approached react to her request for help? A. With disbelief. B. With admiration. C. With irritation. Question 15: What drives her to push herself as much as she does? A. The pressure from her family. B. The pleasure of being the best. C. The pride that her kids can see her win. SECTION II: WRITING Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 16: Alice registered for the course. She then received the scholarship. A. Hardly had Alice registered for the course when she received the scholarship. B. Only after Alice registered for the course has she received the scholarship. C. Having received the scholarship, Alice registered for the course. D. Registering for the course helped Alice receive the scholarship. Question 17: Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions. She works for a famous fashion house. A. Despite working for a famous fashion house, Ann hardly keeps up with the latest fashions. B. Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions so as not to work for a famous fashion house. C. Worked for a famous fashion house, Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions. D. Ann works for a famous fashion house so she always catches the fashion trends. Question 18: She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn't continue without her. A. Unless we had her contribution, we couldn’t continue with the project. B. But for her contribution, we couldn’t have continued with the project. C. If she hadn't contributed positively, we couldn't have continued with the project. D. Provided her contribution wouldn't come, we couldn't continue with the project. Question 19: They are in a dilemma. They can’t decide on how to tackle the financial crisis. A. They can’t decide to tackle the financial crisis on the spur of the moment. B. They are caught between the devil and the deep blue sea about how to tackle the financial crisis. C. They don’t have a leg to stand on when it comes to the way of tackling the financial crisis. D. They hit the nail on the head as far as the way of tackling the financial crisis is concerned. Question 20: “I do wish you’d stop biting your nails, Brian. It really annoys me!” Brian’s mother said to him. A. Brian’s mother told him to stop to bite his nails because it really annoyed her. B. Brian’s mother didn’t like to stop biting his nails because it really annoys her. C. Brian’s mother didn’t like him to bite his nails because it got on her nerves. D. Brian’s mother didn’t like him to bite his nails because it was annoyed. Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions. Question 21: Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order. A. It’s hopeless calling Jim because his phone is out of order. B. It’s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order. C. There’s no point in calling Jim because his phone is out of order. D. It’s worth not calling Jim because his phone is out of order. Question 22: Many people nowadays find it increasingly difficult to exist on the money they earn. A. Many people are getting less and less money from work, so they don’t have enough to live. B. The prices are getting higher and people can’t live with the money they earn. C. Many people nowadays do not live on salary. D. Many people nowadays find it difficult to make both ends meet. Question 23: Farmers are confused and yields are affected by unpredictable rainfall in terms of quantity and timing. A. Unpredictable rainfall in terms of quantity and timing keeps farmers on track and affects yields. B. Unpredictable rainfall in terms of quantity and timing lets farmers off the hook and affects yields. C. Unpredictable rainfall in terms of quantity and timing brings farmers down to earth and affects yields. D. Unpredictable rainfall in terms of quantity and timing throws farmers off balance and affects yields. Question 24: Jenny is so creative that we all can rely on her for original ideas. A. Creative as Jenny is, we can rely on her for original ideas. B. Being creative, we can all rely on Jenny for original ideas. C. So creative is Jenny that we all can rely on her for original ideas. D. Jenny is such creative girl that we all can rely on her for original ideas. Question 25: As far as I am concerned, you can do whatever you like. A. What you like is not as much as what I am concerned about. B. You can do what you like providing that it is not too far. C. I am concerned about what you like. D. In my opinion, you can do what you like. SECTION III: LEXICO-GRAMMAR Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 26: “I’m ______ to listen to your pathetic excuses.” She said. A. sick and tired B. in no mood C. having enough D. sick to death Question 27: “There’s no need to stand on ceremony. _______in.” said a disembodied voice from the kitchen. A. Plough B. Burrow C. Fork D. Dig Question 28: About half of the rope _______ is used by the marine and fishing industries. A. producing B. having produced C. produced D. to be producing Question 29: She’s a bit down in the ______ at the moment – her husband has just lost his job. A. world B. dumps C. heart D. bottom Question 30: Manufacturer Johnson & Johnson released data on March 1, 2021 showing that its _______ version provided strong protection against COVID-19. A. single-dose B. single-file C. single-harelip D. single-cell Question 31: Nowadays, too many people work too hard in offices and get too little exercise; ______ they tend to eat unhealthy food because they do not have time to shop or cook. A. furthermore B. on the contrary C. for fear that D. the opposite Question 32: Paleontologists have come to no definite conclusions as to ______ there have been periodic mass extinctions throughout pre-history. A. what B. why C. which D. that Question 33: I wish you would stop sitting on the _______ and decide whose side you’re on. A. fence B. crossroads C. wall D. middle Question 34: Tonight, I ______ a 1500-word essay for my literature class tomorrow, so I’d better get started. A. am supposed to write B. ought to be written C. should have written D. would rather written Question 35: I had______ got home ______ people began ringing to ask what was going on. A. neither / nor B. no sooner / when C. either / or D. hardly / when Question 36: Florida, _______ the Sunshine state, attracts many tourists per year. A. known as B. is known C. is known as D. it is known as Question 37: The candidate still expects to be re-elected ______ the results of the latest opinion poll. A. apart B. without C. nevertheless D. notwithstanding Question 38: Not until Kentucky's Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972 ______. A. did its full extent realize B. that its full extent was realized C. was its full extent realized D. the realization of its full extent Question 39: Of course you won't become more intelligent if you eat a lot of fish - that's just an old ______ tale. A. maids' B. ladies' C. mothers’ D. wives' Question 40: Does Sheila work full time at the supermarket? - No, only ______ when they need extra staff. A. in and out B. on and off C. by and by D. up and around Question 41: Those campers are really ______. They have no idea how to set up a tent. A. white B. blue C. green D. black Question 42: Trade ______ from bad to worse and staff ______ redundant now. A. has gone - are being made B. have gone - is made C. went - has made D. had gone - are made Question 43: It is a ______. A. blue polyester sleeping bag B. polyester sleeping blue bag C. blue sleeping polyester bag D. sleeping blue polyester bag Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 44: It is believed that the plane crash was caused by electrical malfunction of its navigation system. A. breaking through B. breaking in C. breaking down D. breaking up Question 45: Because of the baby boom of the 1980s, preschools in the U.S. have proliferated. A. changed in philosophy B. become more expensive C. become more crowded D. increased in numbers Part 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 46: The keynote speaker started with some complementary remarks about the A B organisers of the conference, and then proceeded with her speech. C D Question 47: Abraham Lincoln's boyhood home resembled that of many other mid-western A B pioneers with its dirt floor, sleeping loft, and crude fireplace. C D Question 48: A child of noble birth, his name was famous among the children in that school. A B C D Part 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 49: Two students are talking about the upcoming examination. Tim: “______? You look so concerned.” Terry: “My final exam is coming.” A. How is your well-being B. How do you feel C. What’s up D. Where did it go Question 50: Bill and Bob are in a coffee shop. Bill is asking Bob for his opinion about the coffee. Bill: "How's coffee here?" Bob: "_______" A. It's a little bitter, to tell the truth. B. No, I don't think so. C. As a matter of fact, I'm not interested. D. It's a little better now that I've got a car Part 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 51: Julia is on the horns of the dilemma; she just wonders whether to go for a picnic with her friends or to stay at home with her family. A. unwilling to make a decision B. able to make a choice C. eager to make a plan D. unready to make up her mind Question 52: Some people choose to assimilate into the new culture when migrating to another country. A. integrate into B. adapt to C. separate from D. prevent from SECTION IV: READING Part 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. WE REALLY CAN TELL IF WE ARE BEING WATCHED Stories about how people somehow know when they are being watched have been going around for years. However, few attempts have been made to investigate the phenomenon scientifically. Now, with the completion of the largest ever study of the so-called staring effect, there is impressive evidence that this is a recognizable and (53) _______ sixth sense. The study (54) _______ hundreds of children. For the experiments, they sat with their eyes (55) _______ so they could not see, and with their backs to other children, who were told to either stare at them or look away. Time and time again the results showed that the children who could not see were able to (56) ________ when they were being stared at. In a total of more than 18,000 trials (57) ________ worldwide, the children (58) ________ sensed when they were being watched almost 70% of the time. The experiment was repeated with the (59) ________ precaution of putting the children who were being watched outside the room, separated from the starers by the windows. This was done just in case there was some (60) ________ going on with the children telling each other whether they were looking or not. Question 53. A. genuine B. accepted C. received D. sure Question 54. A. involved B. contained C. comprised D. enclosed Question 55. A. shaded B. wrapped C. masked D. covered Question 56. A. find B. notice C. tell D. reveal Question 57. A. worked over B. worked through C. carried on D. carried out Question 58. A. correctly B. exactly C. thoroughly D. perfectly Question 59. A. attached B. added C. connected D. increased Question 60. A. pretending B. lying C. cheating D. deceiving Part 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. RIGHT-HAND DOMINANCE Humans are disproportionately right-handed. Scientists have not been able to agree over the exact percentages of right versus left-handers because there is no accepted standard for identifying which hand is dominant. For example, some people who write or throw with their right hands may perform other tasks with their left hands or may kick a ball with their left foot. Absent an objective measure, therefore, the range of estimates is wide. Right-handers are said to make up 85% to 95% of all people and left-handers 5%-15%, while the remaining tiny percentage are ambidextrous, so they can use both hands with equal ability. Perhaps the most unusual fact about right-hand dominance is how little we know about its causes. Several theories have been proposed. Some evidence exists that the phenomenon is genetic, but genetics cannot agree on the process by which handedness may be passed on by inheritance. Social and cultural forces can also cause a preference for one hand, as when teachers or parents force a naturally left-handed child to use their right hand. And it has been observed by anthropologist that left-handedness tends to be less common in restrictive societies and more common in permissive ones. But no consensus has been reached on how that could occur. The most credible explanations center on functions inside the brain. It has been shown that the brain’s two hemispheres control the opposite side of the body. It has been suggested that the nerves in the brain cross over at neck level to the other side of the body so that the right half of the brain governs the left side of the body while the left half governs the right side. Scientists believe that the left half of the brain evolved in such a way as to predominate over the right half. As a result, the right side of the body is controlled by the more influential left hemisphere, causing the right side to be more adept at physical tasks. But when a person is born with a dominant right hemisphere, that person will be left-handed. Some researchers have argued that some left-handedness may have a pathological origin, having been caused by brain trauma during birth. A theory grounded in evolution is the “warrior and his shield theory”. This theory explains that right-handedness evolved over time to be dominant because a right-handed warrior would hold his shield in his left hand to protect his heart and to leave his right hand to free to hold a weapon. A left-handed warrior, in contrast, would hold his weapon in his left hand and his shield in his right, leaving his heart exposed. Thus a right-handed warrior, with his heart protected against enemy attacks, was more likely to survive. By the process of natural selection, the trait for right-handedness became favored over that for left-handedness. Another theory focuses on the naturally asymmetrical arrangement of the human body. Such asymmetry is evidenced by the observable facts that the right side of the face is slightly different from the left, that one leg is stronger or longer than the other, and that one foot is larger than the other one. Right-handedness, the theory proposes, is just another example of this natural asymmetry. (A) A consequence of right-hand dominance is that most common consumer products are geared to right-handers only, leaving left-handers to struggle to adapt to designs not made with them in mind. (B) Some of these include scissors, doorknobs, locks, screwdrivers, automobile fixtures, refrigerators, can openers, clothes buttons, and fasteners, and musical instruments. (C) The result of this design bias can be more than mere inconvenience. (D) Some left-handed soldiers shooting rifles designed for right-handers have sustained eye and head injuries from ejected shell casings. Hand dominance does not seem to occur in non-human animal species. While some individual animals can be seen developing a preference for one hand or the other, there is no evidence that this preference is common to the species as a whole, as it is in humans. Some scientists claim to have observed such dominance in animals but only in controlled settings, such as a zoo or laboratory, and only when the animals are performing manual tasks that do not mirror how they use their hands in the wild. (Source: An Insight into IELTS) Question 61. The word “absent” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. A. using B. resisting C. lacking D. substituting Question 62. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is a possible cause of left-hand dominance? A. the dominance of the brain’s left hemisphere B. the natural weakness of a human’s right side C. a child’s choice upon reaching school age D. brain trauma in birth Question 63. The word “adept” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. A. speedy B. skillful C. careful D. accustomed Question 64. According to paragraph 4, which of the following are true about the “warrior and his shield theory”? A. a left-handed warrior is favored by natural selection. B. a right-handed warrior holds his weapon in his left hand. C. a left-handed warrior holds his weapon in his right hand. D. a left-handed warrior leaves his heart unprotected. Question 65.The word “that” in the passage refers to ________. A. warrior B. heart C. process of natural selection D. trait Question 66. According to paragraph 6, left-handers would have trouble handling all of the following EXCEPT ________. A. refrigerators B. violins C. pencils D. shirt buttons Question 67. The word “asymmetrical” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. A. deformed B. imbalanced C. geometrical D. variable Question 68. Look at the four letters (A), (B), (C), (D) that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage. Left-handers often search for custom-made versions of these products. Where would the sentence best fit? A. (A) B. (B) C. (C) D. (D) Question 69. Why does the author mention “eye and head injuries” suffered by some left-handed soldiers shooting their rifles? A. to illustrate the “warrior and his shield theory” B. to give an example of the problems faced by left-handers C. to argue that soldiers should wear head protection D. to contrast rifle design with the design of common consumer products Question 70. According to the last paragraph, which of the following is true about hand dominance in animals? A. it is the same as in humans. B. it is observed only in the wild. C. animals in controlled settings adopt the hand dominance of their handlers. D. it has been observed only with manual tasks. Part 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government train carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what had become of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived? The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross the "Great American Desert" to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the United States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless. Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of spring. The dry summer air cured them much as storing in a bam cured the cultivated grasses. (Source: TOEFL Reading Comprehension 5) Question 71. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the western United States Question 72. What could be inferred by the phrase "Legend has it" in line 1? A. Most history books include the story of the train. B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period. C. The driver of the train invented the story. D. The story of the train may not be completely factual. Question 73. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to _______. A. plains B. skeletons C. oxen D. Americans Question 74. What could be inferred about the "Great American Desert" mentioned in paragraph 2? A. Many had settled there by the 1860's. B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area. C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War. D. It was not discovered until the late 1800's. Question 75. The word "barren" in paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to _______. A. lonely B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous Question 76. The word "preferred" in paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to_______. A. favored B. available C. ordinary D. required Question 77. Which of the following could be inferred about the cultivated plant mentioned in the second paragraph? A. Cattle raised in the western United States refused to eat it. B. It had to be imported into the United States. C. It would probably not grow in the western United States. D. It was difficult for cattle to digest. Question 78. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses? A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass Question 79. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses? A. They contain little moisture B. They have tough stems C. They can be grown indoors D. They are not affected by dry weather Question 80. According to the passage, the cattle helped promote the growth of the wild grasses by ______. A. eating only small quantities of grass. B. continually moving from one grazing area to another. C. naturally fertilizing the soil. D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground. ***** END OF TEST – BEST OF LUCK ***** ĐÁP ÁN Câu 1 Câu 2 Câu 3 Câu 4 Câu 5 Câu 6 Câu 7 Câu 8 Câu 9 Câu 10 C A B C A B C A A B Câu 11 Câu 12 Câu 13 Câu 14 Câu 15 Câu 16 Câu 17 Câu 18 Câu 19 Câu 20 C A C A B A D B B C Câu 21 Câu 22 Câu 23 Câu 24 Câu 25 Câu 26 Câu 27 Câu 28 Câu 29 Câu 30 C D D C D B D C B A Câu 31 Câu 32 Câu 33 Câu 34 Câu 35 Câu 36 Câu 37 Câu 38 Câu 39 Câu 40 A B A A D A D C D B Câu 41 Câu 42 Câu 43 Câu 44 Câu 45 Câu 46 Câu 47 Câu 48 Câu 49 Câu 50 C A A C D B C B C A Câu 51 Câu 52 Câu 53 Câu 54 Câu 55 Câu 56 Câu 57 Câu 58 Câu 59 Câu 60 B C A A D C D A B C Câu 61 Câu 62 Câu 63 Câu 64 Câu 65 Câu 66 Câu 67 Câu 68 Câu 69 Câu 70 C D B D D C B C B D Câu 71 Câu 72 Câu 73 Câu 74 Câu 75 Câu 76 Câu 77 Câu 78 Câu 79 Câu 80 A D C D C A C B C D
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