UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Đề thi gồm có 08 trang) ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018 Môn thi: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 12 THPT Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) (Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài ra tờ giấy thi.) SECTION ONE: LISTENING (4.0 POINTS) Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe: Nội dung thi nghe gồm 3 phần. Thí sinh được nghe mỗi phần 02 lần liên tiếp. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thời gian đọc đề bài được mặc định trong đĩa CD. Part 1: Listen and complete the form below. (1.6 pt) Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. PACKHAM’S SHIPPING AGENCY – customer quotation form Example Country of destination: Kenya Size of container: Length: 1.5m Width: (4.). . Height: (5.). .. Contents: clothes (6.) .. (7.).. .. Total estimated value: (8.) £.. Part 2: Listen to a student, Marcel, discussing accommodation with the accommodation officer at a university. Choose the correct answer. (1.2 pt) Top of Form 1. Students should arrange their accommodation for September in _______. A. January B. March C. May 2 Now it is _______. A. January B. March C. May 3. Marcel cannot stay in university hall in September because _______. A. it is too expensive for him B. he will be a second -year student C. there aren’t any places left. 4. Marcel dislikes the room on Old Road because_______. A. there are already too many students in it B. it only has one bathroom C. it is far from the university 5. The accommodation on Edward Street _______. A. is small, but cheap B. has its own private bathroom C. has a kitchen and a living room 6. What will Marcel probably do next? A. look for accommodation online. B. take the room on Old Road. C. talk to his friends about sharing a house. Part 3: Listen and decide whether the statements are TRUE (T) or FALSE (F) (1.2 pt) T F 1. A – Her next-door neighbour also worked with her mum. 2. A – Her next-door neighbour has a healthier lifestyle now. 3. B – He didn’t see his brother after he went to university. 4. B – He supports the same football team as his brother. 5. C – She and her friend argued about a boy. 6. C – She is going to go to the same university as her friend. SECTION TWO: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (6.0 POINTS) Part 1: Choose the best answer A, B, C or D in each sentence to complete it. (2.5 pts) 1. In this assignment, we will _______ your work and then give you detailed feedback on how to improve your writing. A. assess B. judge C. measure D. test 2. The thought of living in another country has never _______ my mind. A. crossed B. had C. occurred to D. come 3. From the _______ expression on his mother’s face, Roy realized that he wouldn’t be able to persuade her. A. tall B. firm C. weak D. hasty 4. To promote him so quickly, you must have a very high _______ of his ability. A. opinion B. view C. idea D. feeling 5. Peter: “Eric is really upset about losing his job.” John: “ Well, _______once myself, I can understand.” A. Fired B. Having fired C. Being fired D. Having been fired 6. I give you the phone number of my hotel so that you can reach me if anything happens. _______ anything happen, I want you lo look after my children. A. Can B. Migh C. Should D. Will 7. I just couldn’t remember her name though it was on the _______ of my tongue. A. top B. edge C. tip D. front 8. Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?” Mary: “_______” A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you. C. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one. D. Neither. I’m going to lease one. 9. She often appears not to care about her work, but appearances can be _______ . A. cunning B. deceitful C. deceptive D. insincere 10. The sunset is so beautiful that it takes our _______ away. A. breath B. head C. mind D. soul 11. ______ handicapped and ______ disabled should be helped to overcome obstacles in ______ life. A. Ø / Ø / the B. The / the / the C. The / the / Ø D. The / Ø / Ø 12. When James came home at three in the morning, his father hit the _______. A. door B. chair C. table D. ceiling 13. Mary: “I am sorry. I broke the vase”. John: “_______” A. OK. Go ahead. B. Don’t worry. Things break. C. Yes, certainly. D. I’d rather not. 14. My parents lent me the money. _______, I couldn’t have afforded the trip. A. However B. Therefore C. Only if D. Otherwise 15. I haven’t got the time to do my own work, _______ help you with yours. A. leaving aside B. not counting C. let alone D. apart from 16. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. He is very _______ . A. open-minded B. kind-hearted C. narrow-minded D. absent-minded 17. There is _______ in my bedroom. A. a square wooden old table B. an old square wooden table C. a wooden old square table D. an old wooden square table 18. One’s fingerprints are _______ other person. A. different from B. different from any C. differ from any D. different from those of any 19. He is very happy because he passed his exam with _______ colours. A. flying B. failing C. imagining D. changing 20. Only the _______ of the building is going to be remodeled. A. insides B. indoors C. inner D. interior 21. _______ I'd like to help you out, I'm afraid I just haven't got any spare money at the moment. A. Much as B. Try as C. Even D. Despite 22. We've been together through _______ in our friendship, and we won't desert each other now. A. bad and good B. thick and thin C. odds and ends D. spick and span 23. _______ saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen. A. What the woman was B. That the woman was C. The woman was D. When was the woman 24. The government must _______ strong measures against crime. A. be seen be taking B. see to be taking C. be seen to be taking D. seen to take 25. I am too busy to go to their house for dinner tonight, so I will call them and tell a little _______ lie about having a flu. A. red B. white C. blue D. black Part 2: Put the verbs given in brackets into the appropriate tenses or forms. (1.0 pt) 1. This is an awful hotel. I wish we (go) __________ to The Grand instead. 2. My suggestion is that your brother (see) __________ the dentist. 3. Please wait a minute! My boss is busy (write) __________ something. 4. Nowadays children would prefer history (teach) __________ in more practical ways. 5. Peter painted the room black. It looks dark and dreary. He (choose) __________ a different colour. Part 3: Complete each of the following sentences with one of the phrasal verbs given in the box. Each phrasal verb is used only ONCE. Make any necessary changes. (0.5 pt) call for go up come off make up for set up put up take up 1. The hotels were all full so we offered to ______Carla ______ for the night. 2. It is interesting to ______ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing. 3. How are they going to ______ the time they wasted playing cards in the barracks? 4. Stop wasting your time. The whole situation ______ an immediate response that could bring more decisive effects. 5. An enquiry was ______ into the use of chemicals in farming. Part 4: Give the correct form the word provided to fill each gap. (1.0 pt) 1. Her health has ____________ (bad) considerably since we last saw her. 2. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart diseases and other ____________ (sick). 3. Kapo, the gorilla was born and bred in ____________. (captive) 4. We found it ____________ (thrill) to your wonderful news. 5. Various ____________ (practice) by police officers were brought to light by the enquiry. 6. The successful candidate will have superb ____________ (lead) skills. 7. Nowadays only a ____________ (hand) of wild crocodiles remain here. 8. She may look fierce but the lioness has ____________ (mother) instincts like any other female animal. 9. Jim is one of the most ____________ (speak) members of the committee. 10. The people possess ____________ (violate) rights. Part 5: Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and correct them. (1.0 pt) Example (0) Line 1: wrongly à wrong LINE TEXT 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Things started to go wrongly as soon as we got to the hotel. We were all completely exhausted after our long journey and looking forward to shower and a rest. However, we found that our room has not ready, which was very annoyed, although the manager was extremely apologetic. While we were waiting, we asked about the excursions to places of an interest which we had read about in brochure. Imagine how we felt when we were told they had all cancelled! Apparently, the person responsible for organize them had left suddenly and had not been replaced. Then Sally saw a notice pinning to the door of the restaurant, saying it has closed for decoration, and Peter discovered that the swimming pool was empty. When we eventually got to our room we were horrified to find that it was at the back of the hotel, and we had a view of a car park, which seemed to be used like a rubbish dump. We seriously began to wonder whether or not to stay. SECTION THREE: READING (5.0 POINTS) Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (1.0 pt) Ask most people for their Top Ten fears, and you’ll be sure to find being burgled fairly high on the (1.) ___________ . An informal survey I carried out among friends at a party last week revealed that eight of them had had their homes broken into more than twice, and two had been burgled five times. To put the record (2.) ___________, none of my friends owns valuable paintings or a sideboard full of family silverware. Three of them are students, in fact. The most typical burglary, it seems, (3.) ___________ the theft of easily transportable items- the television, the video, even food from the freezer. This may have something to do with the fact that the (4.) ___________ burglar is in his (or her) late teens, and probably wouldn’t know what to do with a Picasso, (5) ___________ selling a walkman or a vacuum cleaner is a much easier (6.) ___________. They are perhaps not so much professional criminals, as hard-up young people who need a few pounds and some excitement. Not that this makes having your house (7.) ___________ upside down and your favourite things stolen any easier to accept. In most (8.) ___________, the police have no luck recovering any of the stolen goods. Unless there is definite evidence, they are probably unable to do anything at all. And alarms or special locks don’t (9.) ___________ to help either. The only advice my friends could come up with was “Never live on the ground floor” and “Keep two or three very fierce dogs”, which reminded me of a case I read about, where the burglars’ (10.) ___________ included the family’s pet poodle. 1. A. rank B. rating C. grade D. list 2. A. straight B. right C. correct D. steady 3. A. means B. involves C. affects D. covers 4. A. common B. medium C. average D. middle 5. A. whereas B. as yet C. much as D. as soon as 6. A. concern B. event C. situation D. matter 7. A. put B. turned C. stood D. pulled 8. A. examples B. cases C. items D. occasions 9. A. sound B. look C. show D. seem 10. A. takings B. profit C. loot D. receipts Part 2: Read the text below and fill in the gap with the most suitable word. (1.0 pt) SEASIDE HOLIDAYS IN BRITAIN British families started going on holiday to the seaside around the middle of the 19th century. The (1)________ of the railways made this possible. The first holidaymakers were quite rich and went for their health and education. The seaside was a good place for patients to (2)________ their illness, and doctors recommended bathing in the sea and drinking sea water. Also to (3)________ their knowledge, families attended concerts and read books from the library. At that time, ordinary working people had very little time (4)________ work. However, in 1871, the government (5)________ four “Bank Holidays” – national holiday days. This allowed people to have a day or two out, which gave them a taste for leisure at the seaside. At first, they went on day-trips, taking (6)________ of special cheap tickets on the railways. By the 1880s, rising incomes meant that many ordinary workers and their families could have a week’s holiday at the seaside. Rail fares were reduced and cheap hotels were built to (7)________ them. Holidaymakers enjoyed (8)________ idle, sitting on the beach, bathing in the sea, and eating ice-cream. Cheap entertainment was (9)________ offer and holidaymakers went to have fun. Today, the English seaside (10)________ popular, with more than 18 million holidays taken there each year. Part 3: Read the passage and choose the correct answer for the following questions. (1.0 pt) No educational medium better serves as a means of spatial communication than the atlas. Atlases deal with such invaluable information as population distribution and density. One of the best, Pennycooke's World Atlas, has been widely accepted as a standard owing to the quality of its maps and photographs, which not only show various settlements but also portray them in a variety of scales. In fact, the very first map in the atlas is a cleverly designed population cartogram that projects the size of each country if geographical size were proportional to population. Following the proportional layout, a sequence of smaller maps shows the world's population density, each country's birth and death rates, population increase or decrease, industrialization, urbanization, gross national product in terms of per capita income, the quality of medical care, literacy, and language. To give readers a perspective on how their own country fits in with the global view, additional projections depict the world's patterns in nutrition, calorie and protein consumption, health care, number of physicians per unit of population, and life expectancy by region. Population density maps on a subcontinental scale, as well as political maps, convey the diverse demographic phenomena of the world in a broad array of scales. 1. What is the main topic of this passage? A. The educational benefits of atlases B. Physical maps in an atlas C. The ideal in the making of atlases D. Partial maps and their uses 2. According to the passage, the first map in Pennycooke's World Atlas shows _______. A. the population policy in each country B. the hypothetical sizes of each country C. geographical proportions of each country D. national boundaries relative to population 3. Which of the following sentences is TRUE about the atlas? A. A country's population growth is presented clearly in the very first map in the atlas. B. The atlas isn't as good as other educational medium in term of spatial communication. C. The atlas provides readers with not only each country's life expectancy by religion but also its language and literacy. D. The atlas deals with such worthless information as population distribution and density. 4. The word “invaluable” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. A. worthless B. valueless C. priceless D. useless 5. The word “cleverly” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. A. clearly B. immaculately C. intelligently D. accurately 6. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Calorie consumption B. Currency exchange rates C. A level of educations D. Population decline 7. The word “layout” in the passage refers to _______. A. the cartogram B. the geographical size C. population D. each country 8. It can be inferred from the passage that maps can be used to _______. A. pinpoint ethnic strife in each country B. identify a shortage of qualified labour C. give readers a new perspective in their own country D. show readers photographs in a new form 9. The author of the passage implies that _______. A. atlases provide a bird's eye view of countries B. maps use a variety of scales in each projection C. maps of countries differ in size D. atlases can be versatile instrument 10. The word “convey” in the passage is closest meaning to _______. A. devise B. conjure up C. demonstrate D. indicate Part 4: Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to each of the questions (2.0 pts) Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day. Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to dehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication. The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst. 1. What is the main topic of the passage? A. Weather variations in the desert B. Adaptations of desert animals C. Diseased of desert animals D. Human use of desert animals. 2. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals? A. It helps them hide from predators. B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors. C. It helps them see their young at night D. It keeps them cool at night. 3. The word "maintaining" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___________. A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying 4. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of ___________. A. an animal with a low average temperature B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature 5. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower? A. Just before sunrise B. In the middle of the day C. Just after sunset D. Just after drinking 6. The word "tolerate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________. A. endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce 7. What causes water intoxication? A. Drinking too much water very quickly B. Drinking polluted water C. Bacteria in water D. Lack of water. 8. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals? A. They do not need to eat much food. B. They can eat large quantities quickly C. They easily lose their appetites. D. They can travel long distances looking for food. 9. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph? A. To show how they use camels. B. To contrast them to desert mammals. C. To give instructions about desert survival. D. To show how they have adapted to desert life. 10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals? A. Variation in body temperatures B. Eating while dehydrated C. Drinking water quickly D. Being active at night. SECTION FOUR: WRITING (5.0 POINTS) Part 1: Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has the same meaning as the original one. (2.0 pts) 1. If the work is finished by lunchtime you can go home. Get 2. Without his help we would all have died. If it 3. You pay £20 a month for a period of one year. You pay in twelve successive .. 4. She is proud of being such a good cook. She prides ... 5. We only despatch goods after receiving the money. Only after the money 6. We cannot see animals in a vast area after the forest fire. There is an . 7. We cannot make any comparison with her sacrifice. Nothing . 8. Its lack of irregular verbs makes Esperanto a unique language. Unlike 9. I expected the film to be good, but it wasn’t at all. The film didn’t 10. It was Sir Walter Barron who introduced potatoes and tobacco into England. The English owe .. Part 2: Rewrite each of the following sentences using the word in the bracket so that its meaning stays the same as the original one. You must use between TWO and FIVE words, including the word given. (1.0 pt) 1. Jack found it difficult to control his skis on the steep slope. (under) Jack found it difficult to . 2. Graham spends all his time doing research. (devoted) Graham has .. doing research. 3. Many people nowadays find it increasingly difficult to exist on the money they earn. (make) Many people nowadays find it increasingly .. 4. The Prime Minister felt it appropriate to make a statement. (fit) The Prime Minister ... make a statement. 5. I firmly believe him to be the rudest person I know. (without) He is .. the rudest person I know. Part 3: Essay writing (2.0 pts) Computers can translate all kinds of languages well, so children do not need to learn foreign languages in the future. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? In about 250 words, write an essay to express your viewpoint. Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. THE END
Tài liệu đính kèm: