Đề thi chọn đội tuyển học sinh giỏi lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh - Năm học 2018-2019

SỞ GD & ĐT THANH HÓA
TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG LỆ KHA
Số báo danh
.....................
KÌ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10 
NĂM HỌC 2018-2019
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 
Ngày thi: / 01/ 2019
Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
 Đề thi có 06 trang 
SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây.Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài nghe.
PART I. Listen to passage. Choose the best answer for each question below. (5ps)
1. How many percents do graduate schools in the United States increase in applications from international students this year? 
A. seven percents	B. eight percents	C. nine percents	D. ten percents
2. When is the increase the same as?
A. two years ago	B. three years ago	C. four years ago	D. five years ago	
3. Which countries showed the biggest increases in applications to enter master’s and doctoral programs this fall? 
A. China	B. China, Mexico	
C. Mexico and Brazil 	D. China, Mexico and Brazil
4. Which is the top area of study for international students?
A. Engineering	B. Business 	C. Physical 	D. Earth sciences
5. Who made the survey?
A. South Korea	B. The Council of Graduate Schools	
C. India	D. Brazil
PART II. You'll hear a conversation between two people. Listen and fill in the blanks . (10pts)
 This is the VOA Special English Agriculture Report.
Some (6)_________ in the Netherlands are spending (7)_________ hundred thirty thousand dollars on a (8)_________ The people are scientists at the University of Maastricht. They want to (9)_________ that they can make a hamburger that tastes good and does not require an animal to be (10)_________ 
 Researcher Mark Post and his team have been growing muscle-tissue cells in a laboratory with muscle taken from (11)_________ 
 MARK POST: “We have committed ourselves to make a couple of thousand of these small tissues and then assemble them (12)_________ a hamburger.” Several teams around the world are trying to (13)_________ meat without killing animals. So far the Dutch team appears to have (14)_________ the most progress.
 Mr. Post says he wants to show that the world’s growing demand for meat could be (15) ______ more efficiently and with less harm to the environment.
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (3pts)
16. A. seat	B. heat	 C. bread	 D. leave
17. A. crooked	 B. involved	C. requested	D. needed
18. A. flood 	 	B. good 	 	C. foot 	D. look
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (2pts) 	
19. A. pollution	 B. accident	C. relation	D. agreement
20. A. picture B. number	 C. water	D. canal
 SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
21. 1. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a __________day.
 A. rainy 	B. foggy 	C. snowy 	D. windy
22. He managed to finish his thesis under the _____ of his tutor.	
 A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance
23. A: Congratulation! You did great. B: __________
 A.	That’s okay B. It’s my pleasure
 C. You’ve welcome	 D. It’s nice of you to say so	
24. “You . __________have cooked so many dishes. There are only three of us for lunch.”
 A. wouldn’t 	B. oughtn’t 	C. needn’t 	D. couldn’t	
25. The trouble started only__________the other man came into the room.
 A. when	B. until	C. and then	D. too soon 
26. You’ll have to __________a better idea than that if you want to win . 
 A. come in for B. get down to C. bring out D. come up with 
27. The curriculum at the public school is as good__________of any private school.
A. or better than	 B. as or better than that	
C. as or better that 	 D. as or better than those
28.Taxis don't follow any schedule: they come and go ________.
A. chronologically	B. punctually	C. in sequence	D. at random
29. Samuel Clemens, __________under the pen name Mark Twain, created characters that reflected purely American traits and habits.
 A. wrote	 B. who wrote	 C. and he wrote	 D. he wrote
30.They received __________advice from their parents that they became successful.
 A. so good 	B. such a good 	 C. so good an 	 D. such good
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your answer sheet .(8 pts)
31. The police are stopping all the cars. They (look)_________ for the escaped prison.
32. The woman said she (live) ______________ in this village for over fifty years. 
33. The envelop (lie) ____________ on the table has no stamp on it.
34. Peter along with his parents (watch) _________ TV at the moment.
35. It’s a great pity you didn’t come to Brighton with us last Saturday. As you have never seen the sea before, it (be) _________ a new experience for you.
36. Don’t make the children (come)___________with us if they don’t want to. 
37. If you want to see us, come to Tom’s on Sunday. We (wait) _________ for you there at midday.
38. (Do) ________________ his homework, Nam went to bed late last night. 
Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (7pts)
39. They used to be _________ enemies, but now they have managed to bury the hatchet for the sake of mutual benefits.	 	(RECONCILE)
40. List the problems facing poor and _________ countries.	(POPULATE)
41. I think most of the local ________ around here are very friendly.	 ( 	INHABIT) 
42. It is ________ for beginning students to make mistakes in English.	(AVOID)
43. Both Nam and Hoa are stamp _______They share the same hobby (COLLECT)
44. Their plan seemed to be _________ possible. 	(THEORY) 
45. Air ______is a big problem in many cities in the world.( POLLUTE) 
Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 46 to 50 ). Recognize the mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts) 
Line
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
 Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to kept between ourselves and other people. When someone we do not know well gets too close we usually begin to feel comfortable. If a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most common response is to move away. Some interesting studies have done in libraries. If strangers come too close, many people get up and leave the building, others use different methods such as turning their back on the intruder. Live in cities has made people develop new skills for dealing with situations where they are very close to strangers. Most people on so crowd trains try not to look at strangers; they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands touch by mistake. People using newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other people, and if they do not have one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking into anyone’s eyes..
Example: Line 1: kept→ keep
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 points)
 The birthday cake is traditionally highly decorated,and typically covered(51)______ lit candles when presented; the number of candles often equals the(52)________of the person.The person (53)_______birthday it is makes a silent wish and then (54)____out the candles;if done in one breath,the wish is supposed to come (55)______,but only if the person keeps the wish to himself(or herself). It is also common for the "birthday boy" or" birthday girl" to cut the initial (56)______of the cake as a newlywed couple might with a wedding cake.Birthday cakes have been a tradition dating back as (57)_______as the Middle Ages when the English would conceal symbolic items (58)_______as gold coins,rings and thimbles inside their cakes.Each item was associated with a prediction.For example, a person (59)_______a gold coin in a birthday cake would supposedly (60)_______wealthy. 
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
 YOU CAN’T ESCAPE THE INTERNET 
 Over the last few years, the use of the Internet has increased dramatically in French schools, offices, and homes and this trend continues to grow. Who could have imagined, even in the last decade, that we would be able to (61) _______our friends, colleagues and clients around the world simply through the (62) _______ of a mouse and a modem? There is no doubt, like any invention, that the Internet can be used for good or bad but it is here to stay and has (63) _______ the way we communicate.
	In the world of business, no corporation can be competitive unless it has (64) _______to the Internet. It has become essential to advertise your product and service in this way and an increasing number of companies are using this opportunity to reach a greater number of (65) _______ consumers. Indeed, the bigger the website, (66) _______ professional the company seems to be.
	Similarly in education, the opportunities that the Internet can (67) _______are vast. More and more students are (68) _______ on the Internet for their research; for instance, a physics undergraduate in Paris can download information from a university library in the States in minutes. From the latest research in scientific and linguistic fields to new theories in psychology and history; all this may be published on the world-wide web.
	What will be the future for the Internet in France? It has been (69) _______ that 60% of homes and 50% of business will have access to the Internet within five years. Children, students and professionals will be able to (70) _______and explore the world as they have never done before.
61. A. contact	 B. keep touch	C. stay in touch	D. talk
62. A. tick	 B. running	C. clap	D. click
63. A. modified	 B. been changed C. adapted	D. revolutionized
64. A. access	 B. use	C. approach	D. downloading
65. A. future	 B. competent	C. potential	D. would-be
66. A. more and more 	 B. the more	C. more	D. the most
67. A. take	 B. provide	C. support	D. miss
68. A. relying	 B. surfing	C. working	D. downloading
69. A. established B. announced	C. claimed 	 D. calculated	
70. A. log on	 B. take on	C. log off	D. switch on
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
 	Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected. 
	The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
	On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
	What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
	As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often	
71. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because __________ .
 A. they make them look more stylish.	
 B. they keep the users alert all the time.
 C. they cannot be replaced by regular phones. 
 D. they are indispensable in everyday communications.
72. The word "means" in the passage most closely means ________ .
 A. meanings	 B. expression	 C. transmission	D. method
73. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _________ .
 A. cause some mental malfunction	 B. change their users’ temperament.
 C. change their users’ social behaviours.	D. damage their users’ emotions.
74. "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means _________ .
 A. information on the lethal effects of cell phones. 
 B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones
 C. the negative public use of cell phones. 
 D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones.
75. The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with ______ .
 A. the resident memory. 	 B. the mobility of the mind and the body.
 C. the smallest units of the brain.	 D. the arteries of the brain.
76. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, ________ .
 A. had a problem with memory.	B. abandoned his family.
 C. suffered serious loss of mental ability.	D. could no longer think lucidly.
77. The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means_________ .
 A. certainly	 B. possibly	 C. privately	 D. obviously
78. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ________ .
 A. their radiant light.	 B. their rading power.
 C. their power of attraction.	 D. their invisible rays.
79. According to the writer, people should __________ .
 A. keep off mobile phones regularly. 
 B. never use mobile phones in all cases.
 C. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies. 
 D. only use mobile phones in urgent cases.
80. The most suitable title for the passage could be __________ .
 A. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular. 	
 B. The Way Mobile Phones Work.
 C. Technological Innovations and Their Price	
 D. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time
 SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 pts)
81. My grandfather had completely forgotten that he phoned me last night.
àMy grandfather didn’t have any____________________________________.
82. It wasn’t until he came back to the office that he remembered his mobile phone.
àNot until _______________________________________________.
83. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill.
 à No sooner _______________________________________________.
84. You are allowed to play in my garden if you promise not to do anything wrong.
 à So long _______________________________________________.
85. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
à Were you _______________________________________________.
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it by using the word given. Do not change the form of the given word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5pts)
86. I don’t mind whether we go to the seaside or not this year. 	(DIFFERENCE)
àIt doesn’t ________________________ whether we go to the seaside or not this year.
87. I would prefer you not to phone me at work.	(RATHER) 
àI ______________________________________________________________
88. He is determined to campaign for his son’s freedom. (INTENTION) 
àHe has ________________________________________________________
89. “It is not worth worrying about the past” I told him.	(POINT) 
àI told him that_________________________________________________________ 
90. I tried as hard as I could, but I just couldn’t get the money.	(MATTER)
àNo _____________________________________________________________
Question III. Essay writing (10 pts)
Some people say that we can get benefits from playing sports. Use relevant evidence and examples to support this idea. You should write about 200 - 250 words.
 ----------------- THE END--------------------
SỞ GD & ĐT THANH HÓA
TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG LỆ KHA
 ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HD CHẤM
 ( HDC gồm 02 trang) 
KÌ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10 
NĂM HỌC 2018-2019
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 
Ngày thi:. /01 / 2019
 Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)
PART I. For questions 1-5, tick (ü) A, B or C. (5pts)
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. B
PART II. You will hear a conversation between two people. Listen and complete questions 6-10. (10pts)
6.people
7. three
8. hamburger
9. prove
10.killed
11. cow
12. into
13. produce
14. made
15. satisfied
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)	
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet (3pts)
16.C
17.B
18.A
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet (2pts)
19.B
20.D
SECTION C:  VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21.A
22.A
23.D
24.C
25.A
26.D
27.B
28.
29.B
30.D
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your answer sheet .(8 pts)
31. must be looking
35. would have been
32. had been living/had lived
36. come
33. lying
37. will be waiting
34. is watching
38. Having done
Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (7pts)
39. irreconcilable	43. collectors
40. overpopulated	44. theoretically
41. inhabitants	45. polluion
42. unavoidable
Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 31 to 36 ). Recognise the mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts) 
46. Line 3: comfortable 	→ uncomfortable
47. Line 4: have done	 → have been done
48. Line 6: Live	 	 → Living
49. Line 8: crowd	 → crowded
50. Line 9: using	 	→ use
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
51. with
52. age
53. whose
54. blow
55. true
56. piece
57. far
58. such
59. finding
60. become
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
61. A
62. A
63. D
64. A
65. C
66. B
67. B
68. A
69. D
70. A
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
71. A
72. D
73. A
74. B
75. C
76. A
77. B
78. D
79. D
80. C
SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. My grandfather didn’t have any recollection of phoning me last night.
82. Not until he came back to the office đi he remember his mobile phone.
83. No sooner had he been appointed to the post than the new editor fell ill.
84. So long as you promise not to do anything wrong,you are allowed to play in my garden.
85. Were you to change your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not change the form of the given word. (5pts)
86. It doesn’t make any/ much difference to me whether we go to the seaside or not this year.
87. I would rather you did not phone me at work.
88. He has no intention to stop campaigning for his son’s freedom.
89. I told him that there was no point in worrying about the past.
90. No matter how hard I tried, I couldn’t get the money.
Question III. Essay writing (10 pts)
Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme
1. Format: 2 pts ( coherence, cohesion , style )
The essay should include 3 parts:
a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are expressed clearly
b. Body: should consist of from two to three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic sentence, reasonings and examples. 
c. Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment)
2. Content : 5pts
A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument.
3. Language : 3pts (grammatical accuracy , a wide range of vocabulary and structures )
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài : 100 điểm
- Thang điểm: 20
	 Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng
 Điểm bài thi = 
 5
- Điểm bài thi được làm tròn đến 0,25