Đề ôn thi tốt nghiệp Trung học Phổ thông môn Tiếng Anh - Năm học 2017-2018 - Mã đề 396

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG 
 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018
 (Đề gồm có 04 trang) MÔN TIẾNG ANH ~ MÃ ĐỀ 396
 Thời gian: 60 phút - không tính thời gian giao đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
 Question 1:A. instructor	B. influence	C. inflation	D. intelligent
 Question 2:A. diagram	B. diaper	C. diamond	D. diagonal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
 Question 3:A. national	B. suggestion	C. venture	D. fortunate
 Question 4:A. decision	B. disease	C. divisible	D. design
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: The audience applauded for five minutes after the......ended.
A. performance	B. affair	C. confessio	D. treatment
Question 6: It is difficult to find a.......in the Washington area for less than $1,200 a month
A. two-bedroom apartment	B. two-bedroom apartments
C. two-bedrooms apartments	D. two-bedrooms apartment
Question 7: Dozens of cyclists are........on the city’s roads each year.
A. damaged	B. wounded	C. crashed	D. injured
Question 8: Can you........a pound? I need some money for the coffee machine.
A. offer	B. change	C. exchange	D. give
Question 9: Arithmetic, simple calculation with....., is one branch of mathematics.
A. figures	B. numbers	C. signs	D. digits
Question 10: Your personality is important......the success of your work.
A. in	B. to	C. for	D. on
Question 11: Many technological innovations, such as the telephone, .......the result of sudden bursts of inspiration in fact were preceded by many inconclusive efforts.
A. that appear to be	B. and appear to be	C. whose appearance	D. are appearing
Question 12: Put this.......in the garbage can.
A. burden	B. habit	C. rubbish	D. labor
Question 13: Except for the Sun, all stars are too far from the Earth for their distances........in miles or kilometers.
A. conveniently measured	B. to measure conveniently
C. to be conveniently measured	D. which conveniently measured
Question 14: The more he tried to explain.......
A. the most confused we got	B. the more confused we got
C. the many confused we got	D. the much confused we got
Question 15: The........ in my neighbourhood are well cared by the authorities.
A. inability	B. unable	C. disabled	D. disabilities
Question 16: I’ll introduce to you the m an.......support is necessary for your project.
A. whose	B. who	C. that	D. whom
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: ~ A: “......................” ~ B: “Not bad, but I wish I’d had more time to finish it.”
A. Tell me about your last trip abroad.	B. How about your interview? 
C. Was your paper on thermodynamics successful?	D. Was Mr. Peterson’s lecture interesting?
Question 18: ~ A: “Mum. May I use your red dress tonight?” ~ B: “...................
A. Sorry. Tim needs it for our get-together party tonight.
B. What a pity! I haven’t collected it from the pawnshop.
C. No! Your dad has borrowed it for weeks.
D. Oh, poor me. I lost it on the way from shopping.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 19: It's possible that the plane has been delayed because of the bad weather.
A. The obvious reason for the plane's being delayed for so long is the bad weather.
B. The weather must have been very bad, or else their plane wouldn’t have been delayed.
C. It’s certainly the bad weather which has resulted in the plane’s being late.
D. It may be the bad weather that has caused the plane to be delayed.
Question 20: The test is designed so that the questions get progressively harder.
A. The format of the exam is such that it starts with easier questions and continues by gradually increasing in difficulty.
B. Though the exam may seem very challenging at first glance, if you’ve made progress, you can do it well.
C. The test has been set up to be more difficult in order to test with precision the progress of those taking it.
D. This test has been formatted in such a way that only the most progressive students can do it.
Question 21: I wasn't early enough to find anyone at home awake.
A. When I got home late, I used to find my family sleeping.
B. I didn't expect to find anyone awake when I got home.
C. By the time I arrived home, everyone had gone to sleep.
D. When I got home, I found everyone awake, waiting for me.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 22 to 26.
 Do you want to take part in the battle to save the world’s wildlife? “Animal Watch” is a book which will ...(22)... you in the fight for survival that faces many of our endangered animals and show how they struggle on the ...(23)... of extinction. As you enjoy the book’s 250 pages and over 150 coloured photographs, you will have the ...(24)... of knowing that part of your purchase money is being used to help animals ...(25).... From the comfort of your armchair, you will be able to observe the world's animals close-up and explore their habitats. You will also discover the terrible results of human greed for land, flesh and skins.
 “Animal Watch” is packed with fascinating facts. Did you know that polar bears cover their black noses ...(26)....their paws so they can hunt their prey in the snow without being seen, for example? Or that for each orangutan which is captured, one has to die?
 Question 22:A. combine	B. bring	C. lead	D. involve
 Question 23:A. limit	B. start	C. end	D. edge
 Question 24:A. enjoyment	B. value	C. virtue	D. satisfaction
 Question 25:A. revive	B. preserve	C. conserve	D. survive
 Question 26:A. by	B. for	C. from	D. with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Despite being a billionaire, he’s a real skinflint.
A. crash diet	B. gymnast	C. protagonist	D. miser
Question 28: You can use special symbols in your e-mails if you want to show you're down in the mouth.
A. definite	B. decided	C. deflated	D. depressed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.
A. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work. 
B. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work,
D. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
Question 30: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problerns in no time.
A. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter ftfe Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
D. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 37.
 The Earth comprises three principal layers: the dense, iron-rich core, the mantle made of silicate rocks that are semimolten at depth, and the thin, solid-surface crust. There are two kinds of crust, a lower and denser oceanic dust and an upper, lighter continental crust found over only about 40 percent of the Earth's surface. The rocks of the crust are of very different ages. Some continental rocks are over 3,000 million years old, while those of the ocean floor are less than 200 million years old. The crusts and the top, solid part of the mantle, totaling about 70 to 100 kilometres in thickness, at present appear to consist of about 15 rigid plates, 7 of which are very large. These plates move over the semimolten lower mantle to produce all of the major topographical features of the Earth. Active zones where intense deformation occurs are confined to the narrow, interconnecting boundaries of contact of the plates.
 There are three main types of zones of contact: spreading contacts where plates move apart, converging contacts where plates move towards each other, and transforming contacts where plates slide past each other. New oceanic crust is formed along one or more margins of each plate by material issuing from deeper layers of the Earth's crust, for example, by volcanic eruptions of lava at mid-ocean ridges. If at such a spreading contact the two plates support continents, a rift is formed that will gradually widen and become flooded by the sea. The Atlantic Ocean formed like this as the American and Afro-European plates moved in opposite directions. At the same time a margins of converging plates, the oceanic crust is icing re-absorbed by being subducted into the mantle and remelted beneath the ocean trenches. When two plates carrying continents collide, the continental blocks, too light to be drawn down, continue to float and therefore buckle to form a mountain chain along the length of the margin of the plates.
Question 31: According to the passage, mountain ranges are formed when........
A. a rift is flooded	B. the crust is remelted
C. continental plates collide	D. two plates separate
Question 32: The word "comprises" in line 1 is closest in meaning to.......
A. consists of	B. benefits from	C. adapts to	D. focuses on
Question 33: Where in the passage does the author describe how oceans are formed?
A. The second half of paragraph 2.	B. The second half of paragraph 1.
C. The first half of paragraph 1.	D. The middle of paragraph 2.
Question 34: What does the second paragraph of the passage mainly discuss?
A. Processes that create the Earth's surface features.	B. The major mountain chains of the Earth.
C. The rates at which continents move.	D. The composition of the ocean floors.
Question 35: The word "intense" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to.......
A. extreme	B. strong	C. rare	D. sudden
Question 36: The word "buckle" in the last sentence is closest in meaning to........
A. sink	B. bend	C. reduce	D. separate
Question 37: We can infer from the passage that........
A. a rift is formed by transforming contacts
B. the Atlantic Ocean was formed by converging contacts
C. continental rocks are far older than the oceanic ones
D. the Earth’s crust comprises three principal layers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 38: As you can see, costs of living have been reduced for 20% over the past year.
A. living have	B. for	C. the past	D. As you
Question 39: People are not allowed to enter the park after midnight because lack of security.
A. because	B. of	C. after	D. enter
Question 40: There will be major changes in climate during next century.
A. in	B. next	C. be	D. changes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: He'll have to draw in his horns now he's lost his job. 
A. enlarge his business	B. save up money	C. pay through the nose	D. send up to the air
Question 42: A live programme helps us see the events at the same time as they are happening.
A. fresh	B. old	C. recorded	D. direct
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
 Until recently, the ‘science of the future’ was supposed to be electronics and artificial intelligence. Today it seems more and more likely that the next breakthrough in technology will be brought about through a combination of those two sciences with organic chemistry and genetic engineering. This science is the combination of biotechnology.
 Organic chemistry enables us to produce marvelous synthetic materials. However, it is still difficult to manufacture anything that has the capacity of wool to conserve heat and also to absorb moisture. Nothing that we have been able to produce so far comes anywhere near the combination of strength, lightness, and flexibility that we find in the bodies of ordinary insects. Nevertheless, scientists in the laboratory have already succeeded in 'growing' a material that has many of the characteristics of human skin. The next step may well be 'biotech heart and eyes’ which can replace diseased organs in human beings. These will not be rejected by the body, as in the case with organs from humans.
 The application of biotechnology to energy production seems even more promising. In 1996, the famous science-fiction writer Arthur C. Clarke, many of whose previous predictions have come true, said that we may soon be able to develop remarkably cheap and renewable sources of energy. Some of these power sources will be biological. Clarke and others have warned us repeatedly that sooner or later we will have to give up our dependence on non-renewable power sources. Coal, oil and gas are indeed convenient. However, using them also means creating dangerously high levels of pollution. It will be impossible to meet the growing demand for energy without increasing that pollution to catastrophic levels unless we develop power sources that are both cheaper and cleaner.
Question 43: According to the text, the science of the future is likely to be?
A. Electronics.	B. Genetic engineering.	C. Biotechnology	D. Nuclear technology.
Question 44: The word “These” refers to.......
A. human beings	B. characteristics of human skin
C. biotech heart and eyes	D. diseased organs
Question 45: What does the text say is one of the worst problems caused by the use of coal, gas, and oil?
A. They are so cheap that people waste them.
B. They are too expensive for poorer people in many parts of the world.
C. They are very bad for the world around us.
D. They are no longer as easy to use as they once were.
Question 46: Which word below can be the best substitute for“breakthrough”?
A. exit	B. outlet	C. opening	D. development
Question 47: Organic chemistry helps to produce materials that are........
A. almost as good as wool	B. not as good as natural materials
C. stronger, lighter, and better than natural materials	D. almost as strong, light, and flexible as an insect’s body
Question 48: According to the text, it may soon be possible........
A. to make useful substitutes for human hearts and eyes
B. to take an organ from one human and give it to another human
C. to cure certain diseases that damage human organs
D. to make something as good as human skin
Question 49: In 1996, Arthur C. Clarke predicted........
A. new and better ways of heating and lighting homes, offices, and factories
B. newer and better ways of using oil, gas, and coal
C. that we may not be able to meet future demand for energy
D. that using oil, gas, and coal would lead to very high levels of pollution
Question 50: The word “to meet” is synonymous with.......
A. encounter	B. appear	C. satisfy	D. turn up
The End
SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG 
 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018
 (Đề gồm có 04 trang) MÔN TIẾNG ANH ~ MÃ ĐỀ 325
 Thời gian: 60 phút - không tính thời gian giao đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: He'll have to draw in his horns now he's lost his job. 
A. enlarge his business	B. save up money	C. send up to the air	D. pay through the nose
Question 2: A live programme helps us see the events at the same time as they are happening.
A. old	B. fresh	C. direct	D. recorded
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 3: I wasn't early enough to find anyone at home awake.
A. I didn't expect to find anyone awake when I got home.
B. When I got home, I found everyone awake, waiting for me.
C. When I got home late, I used to find my family sleeping.
D. By the time I arrived home, everyone had gone to sleep.
Question 4: It's possible that the plane has been delayed because of the bad weather.
A. The weather must have been very bad, or else their plane wouldn’t have been delayed.
B. The obvious reason for the plane's being delayed for so long is the bad weather.
C. It’s certainly the bad weather which has resulted in the plane’s being late.
D. It may be the bad weather that has caused the plane to be delayed.
Question 5: The test is designed so that the questions get progressively harder.
A. The test has been set up to be more difficult in order to test with precision the progress of those taking it.
B. Though the exam may seem very challenging at first glance, if you’ve made progress, you can do it well.
C. This test has been formatted in such a way that only the most progressive students can do it.
D. The format of the exam is such that it starts with easier questions and continues by gradually increasing in difficulty.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 6: Except for the Sun, all stars are too far from the Earth for their distances........in miles or kilometers.
A. which conveniently measured	B. to be conveniently measured
C. to measure conveniently	D. conveniently measured
Question 7: Put this.......in the garbage can.
A. burden	B. habit	C. rubbish	D. labor
Question 8: Dozens of cyclists are........on the city’s roads each year.
A. injured	B. damaged	C. wounded	D. crashed
Question 9: The audience applauded for five minutes after the......ended.
A. treatment	B. confessio	C. performance	D. affair
Question 10: Can you........a pound? I need some money for the coffee machine.
A. exchange	B. offer	C. give	D. change
Question 11: I’ll introduce to you the m an.......support is necessary for your project.
A. that	B. whose	C. who	D. whom
Question 12: The more he tried to explain.......
A. the more confused we got	B. the most confused we got
C. the many confused we got	D. the much confused we got
Question 13: Your personality is important......the success of your work.
A. on	B. for	C. in	D. to
Question 14: Arithmetic, simple calculation with....., is one branch of mathematics.
A. figures	B. numbers	C. digits	D. signs
Question 15: Many technological innovations, such as the telephone, .......the result of sudden bursts of inspiration in fact were preceded by many inconclusive efforts.
A. that appear to be	B. are appearing	C. whose appearance	D. and appear to be
Question 16: The........ in my neighbourhood are well cared by the authorities.
A. unable	B. disabled	C. disabilities	D. inability
Question 17: It is difficult to find a.......in the Washington area for less than $1,200 a month
A. two-bedroom apartment	B. two-bedroom apartments
C. two-bedrooms apartments	D. two-bedrooms apartment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 18: You can use special symbols in your e-mails if you want to show you're down in the mouth.
A. deflated	B. decided	C. depressed	D. definite
Question 19: Despite being a billionaire, he’s a real skinflint.
A. protagonist	B. crash diet	C. gymnast	D. miser
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: ~ A: “......................” ~ B: “Not bad, but I wish I’d had more time to finish it.”
A. Was your paper on thermodynamics successful?	B. Tell me about your last trip abroad.
C. Was Mr. Peterson’s lecture interesting?	D. How about your interview? 
Question 21: ~ A: “Mum. May I use your red dress tonight?” ~ B: “...................
A. Oh, poor me. I lost it on the way from shopping.
B. No! Your dad has borrowed it for weeks.
C. What a pity! I haven’t collected it from the pawnshop.
D. Sorry. Tim needs it for our get-together party tonight.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
 Question 22:A. fortunate	B. national	C. suggestion	D. venture
 Question 23:A. decision	B. design	C. divisible	D. disease
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28.
 Do you want to take part in the battle to save the world’s wildlife? “Animal Watch” is a book which will ...(24)... you in the fight for survival that faces many of our endangered animals and show how they struggle on the ...(25)... of extinction. As you enjoy the book’s 250 pages and over 150 coloured photographs, you will have the ...(26)... of knowing that part of your purchase money is being used to help animals ...(27).... From the comfort of your armchair, you will be able to observe the world's animals close-up and explore their habitats. You will also discover the terrible results of human greed for land, flesh and skins.
 “Animal Watch” is packed with fascinating facts. Did you know that polar bears cover their black noses ...(28)....their paws so they can hunt their prey in the snow without being seen, for example? Or that for each orangutan which is captured, one has to die?
 Question 24:A. bring	B. combine	C. involve	D. lead
 Question 25:A. edge	B. start	C. limit	D. end
 Question 26:A. value	B. virtue	C. enjoyment	D. satisfaction
 Question 27:A. revive	B. survive	C. preserve	D. conserve
 Question 28:A. for	B. by	C. with	D. from
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 29 to 35.
 The Earth comprises three principal layers: the dense, iron-rich core, the mantle made of silicate rocks that are semimolten at depth, and the thin, solid-surface crust. There are two kinds of crust, a lower and denser oceanic dust and an upper, lighter continental crust found over only about 40 percent of the Earth's surface. The rocks of the crust are of very different ages. Some continental rocks are over 3,000 million years old, while those of the ocean floor are less than 200 million years old. The crusts and the top, solid part of the mantle, totaling about 70 to 100 kilometres in thickness, at present appear to consist of about 15 rigid plates, 7 of which are very large. These plates move over the semimolten lower mantle to produce all of the major topographical features of the Earth. Active zones where intense deformation occurs are confined to the narrow, interconnecting boundaries of contact of the plates.
 There are three main types of zones of contact: spreading contacts where plates move apart, converging contacts where plates move towards each other, and transforming contacts where plates slide past each other. New oceanic crust is formed along one or more margins of each plate by material issuing from deeper layers of the Earth's crust, for example, by volcanic eruptions of lava at mid-ocean ridges. If at such a spreading contact the two plates support continents, a rift is formed that will gradually widen and become flooded by the sea. The Atlantic Ocean formed like this as the American and Afro-European plates moved in opposite directions. At the same time a margins of converging plates, the oceanic crust is icing re-absorbed by being subducted into the mantle and remelted beneath the ocean trenches. When two plates carrying continents collide, the continental blocks, too light to be drawn down, continue to float and therefore buckle to form a mountain chain along the length of the margin of the plates.
Question 29: What does the second paragraph of the passage mainly discuss?
A. The rates at which continents move.	B. The major mountain chains of the Earth.
C. The composition of the ocean floors.	D. Processes that create the Earth's surface features.
Question 30: According to the passage, mountain ranges are formed when........
A. the crust is remelted	B. a rift is flooded
C. continental plates collide	D. two plates separate
Question 31: Where in the passage does the author describe how oceans are formed?
A. The middle of paragraph 2.	B. The first half of paragraph 1.
C. The second half of paragraph 2.	D. The second half of paragraph 1.
Question 32: The word "buckle" in the last sentence is closest in meaning to........
A. sink	B. reduce	C. bend	D. separate
Question 33: The word "comprises" in line 1 is closest in meaning to.......
A. benefits from	B. adapts to	C. focuses on	D. consists of
Question 34: The word "intense" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to.......
A. rare	B. strong	C. sudden	D. extreme
Question 35: We can infer from the passage that........
A. a rift is formed by transforming contacts
B. the Atlantic Ocean was formed by converging contacts
C. continental rocks are far older than the oceanic ones
D. the Earth’s crust comprises three principal layers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.
 Until recently, the ‘science of the future’ was supposed to be electronics and artificial intelligence. Today it seems more and more likely that the next breakthrough in technology will be brought about through a combination of those two sciences with organic chemistry and genetic engineering. This science is the combination of biotechnology.
 Organic chemistry enables us to produce marvelous synthetic materials. However, it is still difficult to manufacture anything that has the capacity of wool to conserve heat and also to absorb moisture. Nothing that we have been able to produce so far comes anywhere near the combination of strength, lightness, and flexibility that we find in the bodies of ordinary insects. Nevertheless, scientists in the laboratory have already succeeded in 'growing' a material that has many of the characteristics of human skin. The next step may well be 'biotech heart and eyes’ which can replace diseased organs in human beings. These will not be rejected by the body, as in the case with organs from humans.
 The application of biotechnology to energy production seems even more promising. In 1996, the famous science-fiction writer Arthur C. Clarke, many of whose previous predictions have come true, said that we may soon be able to develop remarkably cheap and renewable sources of energy. Some of these power sources will be biological. Clarke and others have warned us repeatedly that sooner or later we will have to give up our dependence on non-renewable power sources. Coal, oil and gas are indeed convenient. However, using them also means creating dangerously high levels of pollution. It will be impossible to meet the growing demand for energy without increasing that pollution to catastrophic levels unless we develop power sources that are both cheaper and cleaner.
Question 36: According to the text, it may soon be possible........
A. to make useful substitutes for human hearts and eyes
B. to take an organ from one human and give it to another human
C. to make something as good as human skin
D. to cure certain diseases that damage human organs
Question 37: What does the text say is one of the worst problems caused by the use of coal, gas, and oil?
A. They are too expensive for poorer people in many parts of the world.
B. They are so cheap that people waste them.
C. They are very bad for the world around us.
D. They are no longer as easy to use as they once were.
Question 38: The word “These” refers to.......
A. human beings	B. diseased organs
C. characteristics of human skin	D. biotech heart and eyes
Question 39: Which word below can be the best substitute for“breakthrough”?
A. opening	B. exit	C. development	D. outlet
Question 40: According to the text, the science of the future is likely to be?
A. Biotechnology	B. Genetic engineering.	C. Nuclear technology.	D. Electronics.
Question 41: Organic chemistry helps to produce materials that are........
A. almost as good as wool	B. almost as strong, light, and flexible as an insect’s body
C. stronger, lighter, and better than natural materials	D. not as good as natural materials
Question 42: In 1996, Arthur C. Clarke predicted........
A. new and better ways of heating and lighting homes, offices, and factories
B. newer and better ways of using oil, gas, and coal
C. that using oil, gas, and coal would lead to very high levels of pollution
D. that we may not be able to meet future demand for energy
Question 43: The word “to meet” is synonymous with.......
A. encounter	B. turn up	C. appear	D. satisfy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
 Question 44:A. intelligent	B. inflation	C. influence	D. instructor
 Question 45:A. diagonal	B. diagram	C. diamond	D. diaper
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: People are not allowed to enter the park after midnight because lack of security.
A. enter	B. after	C. because	D. of
Question 47: There will be major chan