Đề ôn thi tốt nghiệp Trung học Phổ thông môn Tiếng Anh - Năm học 2017-2018 - Mã đề 282

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG 
 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018
 (Đề gồm có 04 trang) MÔN TIẾNG ANH ~ MÃ ĐỀ 282
 Thời gian: 60 phút - không tính thời gian giao đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 1: I slept badly last night. The noise of the traffic kept me.......
A. awake	B. wake	C. awaken	D. waken
Question 2: Her mother asked her to......the table for the evening meal.
A. serve	B. put out	C. lay	D. place
Question 3: They hire out bicycle.......
A. by the hour	B. by hours	C. for hours	D. by an hour
Question 4: They each drank from......glass to see what the contents tasted like.
A. the one’s	B. one’s	C. the other’s	D. the other
Question 5: Those interested in the post of Assistant manager are requested to apply........
A. in person	B. by person	C. as persons	D. as a person
Question 6: Don’t leave your clothes......about on the bed room floor.
A. laying	B. lying	C. lie	D. lay
Question 7: The room was full of people and.......were speaking.
A. each of them	B. all of them	C. none of them	D. neither of them
Question 8: When we arrived in Paris it was.......with rain.
A. falling	B. running	C. pouring	D. dropping
Question 9: At the sales things can often be bought.......half price.
A. at	B. for	C. with	D. in
Question 10: Did the man......by the committee accept the job?
A. appointing	B. to appoint	C. appointed	D. was appointed
Question 11: She raced by in a car, with her hair......behind.
A. streamed	B. stream	C. streams	D. stream
Question 12: Very few planets are.......because of lack of water and oxygen.
A. inhabitant	B. inhabitable	C. uninhabitable.	D. inhabited
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
 Question 13:A. foxes	B. anxiety	C. maximum	D. mixes
 Question 14:A. crystal	B. pigsty	C. jolly	D. army
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
 Question 15:A. generalize	B. beautifully	C. maternity	D. comfortable
 Question 16:A. wonderful	B. detective	C. attendance	D. enjoyment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17: Last weekend, we had fun roaming the countryside on our bikes.
A. relaxing	B. camping	C. wandering	D. resting
Question 18: Get off your backside and do some work! 
A. make haste	B. stop being lazy	C. do your best	D. wake up
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: I've made a real mess of my exams. 
A. finished up	B. passed with flying colours	C. failed in	D. done badly
Question 20: The first domesticated bird on earth was probably the goose.
A. raised	B. homey	C. familiar	D. wild
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 21: ~ A: “..................” ~ B: “He’s run away with his new girl.”
A. We haven’t seen Mr. Davis for ages.”	B. Has he bought a new Ferrari?
C. I’ll take him to the court.	D. Billy looks terrific in his new suit.
Question 22: ~ A: “Why do you want this job?” ~ B: “..................”
A. Anything to do with computers.	B. I’m good at computing.
C. There used to be a good chance of promotion.	D. I’ve just taken my school certificate.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 23 to 29.
 The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually and the first woman to win this prize was Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner in 1905. In fact, her work inspired the creation of the Prize. The first American woman to win this prize was Jane Addams, in 1931. However, Addams is best known as the founder of Hull House.
 Jane Addams was born in 1860, into a wealthy family. She was one of a small number of women in her generation to graduate from college. Her commitment to improving the lives of those around her led her to work for social reform and world peace. In the 1880s, Jane Addams travelled to Europe. While she was in London, she visited a ‘settlement house’ called Toynbee Hall. Inspired by Toynbee Hall, Addams and her friend, Ellen Gates Starr, opened Hull House in a neighbourhood of slums in Chiacago in 1899. Hull House provided a day care centre for children of working mothers, a community kitchen, and visiting nurses. Addams and her staff gave classes in English literacy, art, and other subjects. Hull House also became a meeting place for clubs and labour unions. Most of the people who worked with Addams in Hull House were well educated, middle-class women. Hull House gave them an opportunity to use their education and it provided a training ground for careers in social work.
 Before World War I, Addams was probably the most beloved woman in America. In a newspaper poll that asked, “Who among our contemporaries are of the most value to the community?” Jane Addams was rated second, after Thomas Edison. When she opposed America’s involvement in World War I, however, newspaper editors called her a traitor and a fool, but she never changed her mind. Jane Addams was a strong champion of several other causes. Until 1920, American women could not vote. Addams joined in the movement for women’s suffrage and was a vice president of the National American Woman Suffrage Association. She was a founding member of the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP), and was president of the Women’s International League for Peace and Freedom. Her reputation was gradually restored during the last years of her life. She died of cancer in 1935.
Question 23: With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The early development of Social Work in America
B. A woman’s work for social reform and world peace
C. The first award of the Nobel Peace Prize to an American woman
D. Contributions of educated women to American society
Question 24: The word “their” in line 11 refers to......
A. labour union members	B. children of working mothers
C. visiting nurses	D. middle-class women
Question 25: The word “commitment” in line 5 is closest in meaning to......
A. obligation	B. involvement	C. dedication	D. enthusiasm
Question 26: The word “contemporaries” in line 14 is closest in meaning to......
A. people old enough to vote	B. elected officials
C. famous people still alive	D. people of the same time
Question 27: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. those who lived near Hull House had very poor literacy skills
B. Jane Addams is most famous for her opening of Hull House
C. the work of Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner was an inspiration to Jane Addams
D. Jane addams considered herself as a citizen of the world rather than of one particular country
Question 28: Jane Addams was inspired to open Hull House because......
A. it gave educated women an opportunity to use their education and develop careers in social work
B. she visited Toynbee Hall
C. she was invited by a ‘settlement house’ in Chicago
D. she travelled to Europe in the 1880s
Question 29: According to the passage, Jane Addams’ reputation was damaged when she......
A. joined in the movement for women’s suffrage
B. allowed Hull House to become a meeting place for clubs and labour unions
C. became a founding member of the NAACP
D. opposed America’s involvement in World War I
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 30 to 35.
 Everyday words we know as well as we know our own names, and we use them as naturally as breathing. But what about those thousands of other words that we can't quite ...(30)... to memory-but that come up all the time in reading, in meetings, or in the classroom? Words like 'lucubrate' ('discourse learnedly in writing'), 'demesne' ('land attached to a manor'), and 'cynosure' ('a person or thing that is the centre of attention or admiration') hover on the margins of our vocabularies. We ...(31)... across such words from time to time, and when we do we may not know quite what they mean, or we simply draw a blank.
 The Oxford Dictionary of Difficult Words presents the words we really need to know, without the added burden of those we never look up. The definitions are concise and clear, and are ...(32)... by sentences and phrases that show the word, or a certain sense of it, used in context. Usage notes are there to help ...(33)... your use of words more precise and powerful.
 This dictionary will help you understand words outside your every day "working" vocabulary, words that are too learned, specialized, or highbrow for day-to-day usage. Abundant ...(34)... references help distinguish words that are related ('deism' and 'theism') or opposite ('esoteric' and 'exoteric'). The Dictionary is a handy reference that can be ...(35)... with you to enhance your reading and learning experience wherever you go.
 Question 30:A. cause	B. access	C. commit	D. relate
 Question 31:A. run	B. bring	C. go	D. put
 Question 32:A. shown	B. enhanced	C. hinted	D. written
 Question 33:A. provide	B. give	C. put	D. make
 Question 34:A. next	B. cross	C. top	D. below
 Question 35:A. accompanied B. followed	C. brought	D. carried
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 36: "How often do you go to the cinema?" asked Jean’s friend.
A. Jean’s friend wanted to know how she often went to the cinema.
B. Jean’s friend asked Jean how to often go to the cinema.
C. Jean’s friend wanted to know how often she went to the cinema. 
D. Jean’s friend asked how much time did she go to the cinema.
Question 37: Whenever you finish using the blender, wash it thoroughly.
A. The blender must be washed thoroughly after every use.
B. The blender can bo used only after washing thoroughly.
C. The blender should be used after washing thoroughly.
D. The blender will be thoroughly washed lor use.
Question 38: The more he learned about the job, the less interested he got.
A. After learning about the job. he lost his interest in it. 
B. Even though the job is not interesting, he learned about it.
C. Though learning that the job is not interesting, he got it.
D. As soon as he learned about the interesting job, he got it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
 There are two main hypotheses when it comes to explaining the emergence of modern humans. The ‘Out of Africa’ theory holds that homo sapiens burst onto the scene as a new species around 150,000 to 200,000 years ago in Africa and subsequently replaced archaic humans such as the Neandertals. The other model, known as multi-regional evolution or regional continuity, posits far more ancient and diverse roots for our kind. Proponents of this view believe that homo sapiens arose in Africa some 2 million years ago and evolved as a single species spread across the Old World, with populations in different regions linked through genetic and cultural exchange.
 Of these two models, Out of Africa, which was originally developed based on fossil evidence, and supported by much genetic research, has been favoured by the majority of evolution scholars. The vast majority of these genetic studies have focused on DNA from living populations, and although some small progress has been made in recovering DNA from Neandertal that appears to support multi-regionalism, the chance of recovering nuclear DNA from early human fossils is quite slim at present. Fossils thus remain very much a part of the human origins debate.
 Another means of gathering theoretical evidence is through bones. Examinations of early modern human skulls from Central Europe and Australia dated to between 20,000 and 30,000 years old have suggested that both groups apparently exhibit traits seen in their Middle Eastern and African predecessors. But the early modern specimens from Central Europe also display Neandertal traits, and the early modern Australians showed affinities to archaic Homo from Indonesia. Meanwhile, the debate among paleoanthropologists continues , as supporters of the two hypotheses challenge the evidence and conclusions of each other.
Question 39: All of the following are true except......
A. the multi-regional model goes back further in history.
B. the Out of Africa model has had more support from scholars
C. three methods of gathering evidence are mentioned in the passage
D. DNA studies offer one of the best ways in future to provide clear evidence.
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that......
A. there is little likelihood that the debate will die down
B. the debate will interest historians to take part in
C. there is likely to be an end to the debate in the near future
D. the debate is likely to be less important in future
Question 41: The word “emergence” in line 1 is closest in meaning to......
A. appearance	B. complexity	C. decline	D. development
Question 42: The word “proponents” in line 5 is closet in meaning to......
A. inspectors	B. historians	C. advocates	D. experts
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true......
A. both hypotheses focus on Africa as a location for the new species.
B. early modern human skulls all support the same conclusions
C. early modern Australian skulls have similarities to those from Indonesia.
D. the vast majority of genetic studies have focused on living populations
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT true about the two hypotheses......
A. Both hypotheses regard Neandertals to be the predecessors of modern humans
B. Both hypotheses cite Africa as an originating location.
C. Genetic studies have supported both hypotheses
D. One hypothesis dates the emergence of homo sapiens much earlier than the other.
Question 45: The passage primarily discusses which of the following......
A. That fossils remain very much a part of the human origins debate
B. Evidence that supports the “Out of Africa” theory
C. The difficulties in obtaining agreement among theorists on the human origins debate
D. Two hypotheses and some evidence on the human origins debate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: Generally speaking, proteins that come from animal sources are complete whereas those that come from another sources are incomplete proteins.
A. those that	B. come from	C. another	D. Generally speaking
Question 47: Scientists have found that occasional exposure to bright light can be help a person get used to working the night shift.
A. have found	B. can be help	C. to working	D. exposure
Question 48: Plants require much less moist in cold weather than in warm weather.
A. moist	B. much	C. less	D. than
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Ben made all attempts to carry out the project. Finally, he completed it with satisfactory result.
A. If he had not attempted to carry out the project, it wouldn’t have been completed.
B. His attempts made the project finally a complete and satisfactoiy success. 
C. He did not make any attempt because he knew that the project could never be completed.
D. But for his attempts, the project could not have been completed with satisfactory result.
Question 50: We should quickly find the solution to the problem. Otherwise, its impact on those concerned will increase.
A. If all those concerned lower their impact, the problem will be belter solved.
B. The sooner we find the solution to the problem, the lower the impact it has on those concerned. 
C. If we can solve this problem soon, we'll lower the impact on all of our concerns. 
D. By the time we solve this problem, the impact on those concerned will have been lowered.
The End
SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG 
 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018
 (Đề gồm có 04 trang) MÔN TIẾNG ANH ~ MÃ ĐỀ 667
 Thời gian: 60 phút - không tính thời gian giao đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
 Question 1:A. generalize	B. maternity	C. comfortable	D. beautifully
 Question 2:A. enjoyment B. detective	C. wonderful	D. attendance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
 Question 3:A. crystal	B. pigsty	C. jolly	D. army
 Question 4:A. maximum	B. foxes	C. anxiety	D. mixes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: I slept badly last night. The noise of the traffic kept me.......
A. awaken	B. waken	C. awake	D. wake
Question 6: At the sales things can often be bought.......half price.
A. at	B. for	C. in	D. with
Question 7: Don’t leave your clothes......about on the bed room floor.
A. lie	B. lay	C. laying	D. lying
Question 8: Those interested in the post of Assistant manager are requested to apply........
A. as persons	B. in person	C. as a person	D. by person
Question 9: When we arrived in Paris it was.......with rain.
A. running	B. falling	C. pouring	D. dropping
Question 10: Her mother asked her to......the table for the evening meal.
A. place	B. lay	C. put out	D. serve
Question 11: They hire out bicycle.......
A. by the hour	B. for hours	C. by hours	D. by an hour
Question 12: Did the man......by the committee accept the job?
A. appointed	B. to appoint	C. was appointed	D. appointing
Question 13: She raced by in a car, with her hair......behind.
A. streams	B. stream	C. streamed	D. stream
Question 14: They each drank from......glass to see what the contents tasted like.
A. the one’s	B. one’s	C. the other	D. the other’s
Question 15: The room was full of people and.......were speaking.
A. none of them	B. neither of them	C. all of them	D. each of them
Question 16: Very few planets are.......because of lack of water and oxygen.
A. uninhabitable.	B. inhabited	C. inhabitant	D. inhabitable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17: Get off your backside and do some work! 
A. wake up	B. stop being lazy	C. make haste	D. do your best
Question 18: Last weekend, we had fun roaming the countryside on our bikes.
A. camping	B. resting	C. wandering	D. relaxing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 19: Ben made all attempts to carry out the project. Finally, he completed it with satisfactory result.
A. But for his attempts, the project could not have been completed with satisfactory result.
B. If he had not attempted to carry out the project, it wouldn’t have been completed.
C. He did not make any attempt because he knew that the project could never be completed.
D. His attempts made the project finally a complete and satisfactoiy success. 
Question 20: We should quickly find the solution to the problem. Otherwise, its impact on those concerned will increase.
A. If we can solve this problem soon, we'll lower the impact on all of our concerns. 
B. If all those concerned lower their impact, the problem will be belter solved.
C. By the time we solve this problem, the impact on those concerned will have been lowered.
D. The sooner we find the solution to the problem, the lower the impact it has on those concerned. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Generally speaking, proteins that come from animal sources are complete whereas those that come from another sources are incomplete proteins.
A. those that	B. another	C. Generally speaking	D. come from
Question 22: Scientists have found that occasional exposure to bright light can be help a person get used to working the night shift.
A. to working	B. exposure	C. have found	D. can be help
Question 23: Plants require much less moist in cold weather than in warm weather.
A. much	B. moist	C. less	D. than
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE inmeaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The first domesticated bird on earth was probably the goose.
A. wild	B. homey	C. raised	D. familiar
Question 25: I've made a real mess of my exams. 
A. passed with flying colours B. finished up	C. failed in	D. done badly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 32.
 The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually and the first woman to win this prize was Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner in 1905. In fact, her work inspired the creation of the Prize. The first American woman to win this prize was Jane Addams, in 1931. However, Addams is best known as the founder of Hull House.
 Jane Addams was born in 1860, into a wealthy family. She was one of a small number of women in her generation to graduate from college. Her commitment to improving the lives of those around her led her to work for social reform and world peace. In the 1880s, Jane Addams travelled to Europe. While she was in London, she visited a ‘settlement house’ called Toynbee Hall. Inspired by Toynbee Hall, Addams and her friend, Ellen Gates Starr, opened Hull House in a neighbourhood of slums in Chiacago in 1899. Hull House provided a day care centre for children of working mothers, a community kitchen, and visiting nurses. Addams and her staff gave classes in English literacy, art, and other subjects. Hull House also became a meeting place for clubs and labour unions. Most of the people who worked with Addams in Hull House were well educated, middle-class women. Hull House gave them an opportunity to use their education and it provided a training ground for careers in social work.
 Before World War I, Addams was probably the most beloved woman in America. In a newspaper poll that asked, “Who among our contemporaries are of the most value to the community?” Jane Addams was rated second, after Thomas Edison. When she opposed America’s involvement in World War I, however, newspaper editors called her a traitor and a fool, but she never changed her mind. Jane Addams was a strong champion of several other causes. Until 1920, American women could not vote. Addams joined in the movement for women’s suffrage and was a vice president of the National American Woman Suffrage Association. She was a founding member of the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP), and was president of the Women’s International League for Peace and Freedom. Her reputation was gradually restored during the last years of her life. She died of cancer in 1935.
Question 26: With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned?
A. Contributions of educated women to American society
B. The first award of the Nobel Peace Prize to an American woman
C. A woman’s work for social reform and world peace
D. The early development of Social Work in America
Question 27: The word “contemporaries” in line 14 is closest in meaning to......
A. people old enough to vote	B. famous people still alive
C. elected officials	D. people of the same time
Question 28: The word “commitment” in line 5 is closest in meaning to......
A. obligation	B. dedication	C. enthusiasm	D. involvement
Question 29: Jane Addams was inspired to open Hull House because......
A. she visited Toynbee Hall
B. she was invited by a ‘settlement house’ in Chicago
C. she travelled to Europe in the 1880s
D. it gave educated women an opportunity to use their education and develop careers in social work
Question 30: The word “their” in line 11 refers to......
A. children of working mothers	B. middle-class women
C. visiting nurses	D. labour union members
Question 31: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Jane Addams is most famous for her opening of Hull House
B. those who lived near Hull House had very poor literacy skills
C. the work of Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner was an inspiration to Jane Addams
D. Jane addams considered herself as a citizen of the world rather than of one particular country
Question 32: According to the passage, Jane Addams’ reputation was damaged when she......
A. became a founding member of the NAACP
B. allowed Hull House to become a meeting place for clubs and labour unions
C. joined in the movement for women’s suffrage
D. opposed America’s involvement in World War I
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 33 to 39.
 There are two main hypotheses when it comes to explaining the emergence of modern humans. The ‘Out of Africa’ theory holds that homo sapiens burst onto the scene as a new species around 150,000 to 200,000 years ago in Africa and subsequently replaced archaic humans such as the Neandertals. The other model, known as multi-regional evolution or regional continuity, posits far more ancient and diverse roots for our kind. Proponents of this view believe that homo sapiens arose in Africa some 2 million years ago and evolved as a single species spread across the Old World, with populations in different regions linked through genetic and cultural exchange.
 Of these two models, Out of Africa, which was originally developed based on fossil evidence, and supported by much genetic research, has been favoured by the majority of evolution scholars. The vast majority of these genetic studies have focused on DNA from living populations, and although some small progress has been made in recovering DNA from Neandertal that appears to support multi-regionalism, the chance of recovering nuclear DNA from early human fossils is quite slim at present. Fossils thus remain very much a part of the human origins debate.
 Another means of gathering theoretical evidence is through bones. Examinations of early modern human skulls from Central Europe and Australia dated to between 20,000 and 30,000 years old have suggested that both groups apparently exhibit traits seen in their Middle Eastern and African predecessors. But the early modern specimens from Central Europe also display Neandertal traits, and the early modern Australians showed affinities to archaic Homo from Indonesia. Meanwhile, the debate among paleoanthropologists continues , as supporters of the two hypotheses challenge the evidence and conclusions of each other.
Question 33: The passage primarily discusses which of the following......
A. That fossils remain very much a part of the human origins debate
B. Two hypotheses and some evidence on the human origins debate
C. Evidence that supports the “Out of Africa” theory
D. The difficulties in obtaining agreement among theorists on the human origins debate
Question 34: The word “emergence” in line 1 is closest in meaning to......
A. decline	B. complexity	C. appearance	D. development
Question 35: All of the following are true except......
A. the Out of Africa model has had more support from scholars
B. three methods of gathering evidence are mentioned in the passage
C. DNA studies offer one of the best ways in future to provide clear evidence.
D. the multi-regional model goes back further in history.
Question 36: Which of the following is NOT true......
A. both hypotheses focus on Africa as a location for the new species.
B. the vast majority of genetic studies have focused on living populations
C. early modern human skulls all support the same conclusions
D. early modern Australian skulls have similarities to those from Indonesia.
Question 37: The word “proponents” in line 5 is closet in meaning to......
A. advocates	B. experts	C. historians	D. inspectors
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true about the two hypotheses......
A. Both hypotheses cite Africa as an originating location.
B. Both hypotheses regard Neandertals to be the predecessors of modern humans
C. Genetic studies have supported both hypotheses
D. One hypothesis dates the emergence of homo sapiens much earlier than the other.
Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that......
A. there is little likelihood that the debate will die down
B. there is likely to be an end to the debate in the near future
C. the debate is likely to be less important in future
D. the debate will interest historians to take part in
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 40 to 45.
 Everyday words we know as well as we know our own names, and we use them as naturally as breathing. But what about those thousands of other words that we can't quite ...(40)... to memory-but that come up all the time in reading, in meetings, or in the classroom? Words like 'lucubrate' ('discourse