Đề luyện thi tốt nghiệp Trung học Phổ thông năm 2022 môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 - Mã đề 088 (Có đáp án)

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KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Bài thi. NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 088
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Họ và tên thí sinh:. SBD:
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 01 A. stops	B. speaks	C. hats	D. arrives
Question 02. A. strength	B. decide	C. athlete	D. species
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 03. A. prevent	B. teacher	C. wildlife	D. beauty
Question 04. A. different	B. excellent	C. attraction	D. confident
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 05. You like coffee, ______?
A. don't you	B. didn't you	C. won't you	D. haven't you
Question 06. This is ______ second time I have ever eaten this food.
A. a	B. the	C. an	D. no article
Question 07. The whole world is waiting ______ a vaccine against Covid-19.
A. with	B. for	C. at	D. in
Question 08. Every day I spend two hours ______ English.
A. practise	B to practise	C. practising	D. practiced
Question 09. If I ______ you, I would spend more time learning English.
A. would be	B. were	C. will be	D. am
Question 10. She has not written to me since we ______ last time.
A. met	B. to meet	C. will meet	D. was meeting
Question 11. True Blood is my favourite TV series, ______ I don't have much time to watch it often.
A. although	B. before	C. because	D. yet
Question 12. He will take the dog out for a walk ______.
A. as soon as he finishes	B. when I was finishing dinner
C. until I finished dinner	D. shall have finished
Question 13. My favourite hobby is watching the work ______ by Shakespeare in the 20 century.
A. written	B. is writing	C. writes	D. is written
Question 14. A ______ party was prepared to welcome the honoured guests.
A. special	B. specialise	C. specially	D. specialisation
Question 15. Jim ______ his best suit to make a good impression on his future in-laws.
A. took on	B. took off	C. put on	D. put off
Question 16. You'd better ______ a commitment to being a volunteer on a regular basis.
A. promise	B. do	C. make	D. pull
Question 17. People thought that maybe his novel might one day be turned into a film and become a Hollywood ______. 
A. best-seller	B. attraction	C. blockbuster	D. debut
Question 18. People have used coal and oil to ______ electricity for a long time.
A. bred	B. raise	C. cultivate	D. generate
Question 19. My mother doesn't ______ eye to eye with my father sometimes.
A. see	B. glance	C. look	D. agree
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. This special offer is exclusive to readers of this magazine.
A. presentable	B. rewarding	C. attractive	D. limited
Question 21. The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favourite films.
A. advertisements	B. contests	C. businesses	D. economics
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. His boss has had enough of his impudence, and doesn't want to hire him anymore.
A. respect	B. agreement	C. obedience	D. rudeness
Question 23. She was like a cat on hot bricks before her driving test.
A. nervous	B. comfortable	C. depressed	D. relaxing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Alice and Peter are talking about the recycling mechanism. 
- Alice: “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.”
- Peter: “__________”
A. It's rubbish. We shouldn't use it	B. Never mind
C. I can't agree with you more	D. Of course not
Question 25. Lucy is asking for permission to play the guitar at Pete's home.
- Lucy: “Is it all right if I play the guitar in here while you're studying?”.
- Pete: “__________”
A. Oh, I wish you wouldn't.	B. Well, I'd rather not.
C. Well, actually, I'd prefer it if you didn't.	D. Well, if only you didn't.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 26. The lion has long been a symbol of strength, powerful and cruelty.
 	A. powerful	B. strength	C. long been 	D. symbol
Question 27. Those of you who signed up for Dr. Daniel’s anthropology class should get their books as soon as possible. 
A. their books 	B. Those of 	C. for	D. anthropology
Question 28. The boy is considering for the leading role in the school play.
 	A. is considering	B. leading role	C. the	D. school play
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Coincident with concerns about the accelerating loss of species and habitats has been a growing appreciation of the importance of biological diversity, the (29) ______ of species in a particular ecosystem, to the health of the Earth and human well-being. Much has been written about the diversity of terrestrial organisms, particularly the exceptionally rich life associated tropical rainforest habitats. Relatively little has been said, (30) ______, about diversity of life in the sea even though coral reef systems are comparable to rain forests in terms of richness of life.
An alien exploring Earth would probably (31) ______ priority to the planet's dominants - most distinctive feature - the ocean. Humans have a bias toward land (32) ______ sometimes gets in the way of truly examining global issues. Seen from far away, it is easy to realize that landmasses occupy only one-third of the Earth's surface. Given that two thirds of the Earth's surface is water and that marine life lives at all levels of the ocean, the total three-dimensional living space of the ocean is perhaps 100 times (33) ______ than that of land and contains more than 90 percent of all life on Earth even though the ocean has fewer distinct species.
 (Source: https://vndoc.com)
Question 29. A. number	B. each	C. amount	D. few 
Question 30. A. therefore	B. thus	C. however	D. instead 
Question 31. A. make	B. have	C. give	D. bring 
Question 32. A. who	B. when	C. that	D. whose 
Question 33. A. higher	B. bigger	C. greater	D. larger
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 34. My father is less friendly than my mother.
A. My mother is not as friendly as my father. 	
B. My mother is less friendly than my father.
C. My father is more friendly than my mother.	
D. My father is not as friendly as my mother
Question 35. “I bought these books last week”. He said.
A. He said he bought these books last week.
B. He said he had bought those books the week before.
C. He said he had bought these books last week
D. He said he bought these books the week before.
Question 36. She probably buys this house next week.
A. She may buy this house next week	B. She must buy this house next week
C. She should buy next house next week.	D. She doesn’t have to buy this house next week. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
History books recorded that the first film with sound was The Jazz Singer in 1927. But sound films, or talkies, did not suddenly appear after years of silent screenings. From the earliest public performances in 1896, films were accompanied by music and sound effects. These were produced by a single pianist, a small band, or a full-scale orchestra; large movie theatres could buy sound-effect machines. Research into sound that was reproduced at exactly at the same time as the pictures - called "synchronized sound" – began soon after the very first films were shown. With synchronized sound, characters on the movie screen could sing and speak. As early as 1896, the newly invented gramophone, which played a large disc carrying music and dialogue, was used as a sound system. The biggest disadvantage was that the sound and pictures could become unsynchronized if, for example, the gramophone needle jumped or if the speed of the projector changed. This system was only effective for a single song or dialogue sequence.
In the "sound-on-film" system, sound was recorded as a series of marks on celluloid which could be read by an optical sensor. These signals would be placed on the film alongside the image, guaranteeing synchronization. Short feature films were produced in this way as early as 1922. This system eventually brought us "talking pictures". 	(Source: https://vndoc.com)
Question 37. The passage is mainly about the ______.
A. research into sound reproduction.	B. development of sound with movies.
C. disadvantages of synchronized sound.	D. history of silent movies.
Question 38. According to the passage, films using sound effects were screened ______.
A. as early as 1922	B. in 1927	C. before 1896	D. as early as 1896
Question 39. The word "screenings" is closest in meaning to "______."
A. projections	B. revelations	C. demonstrations 	D. diversions
Question 40. Which of the following is not mentioned as a producer of sound to accompany movies?
A. a Jazz Singer	B. a single pianist 	C. a gramophone 	D. a small band
Question 41. The phrase "these signals" refers to ______.
A. sounds	B. marks	C. series	D. sensors
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid removes minerals from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages remineralization and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth produce acid depends on the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition of the microbial flora, and whether the bacteria of the plaque have been "primed" by frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth healthy, a regular dental hygiene program should be followed.
Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of bacteria in the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more accessible, enabling saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in drinking water when teeth are forming, some fluoride is incorporated into the enamel of the teeth, making them more resistant to attack by acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another way, by promoting the remineralization of early carious lesions.
In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep your teeth healthy is to reduce your intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals and not between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount determines how much harmful acid the bacteria in your saliva produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality of your saliva. Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your mouth a long time. Also try to brush and floss your teeth after eating sugary foods. Even rinsing your mouth with water is effective.
Whenever possible, eat foods with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks, apples, celery sticks, etc., that scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush. Cavities can be greatly reduced if these rules are followed when eating sweets. (Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Deff and Ben Gok)
Question 42. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Good nutrition	B. Food with fiber
C. Ways to keep your teeth healthy	D. Fluoridization and cavities
Question 43. The word “it” refers to ______.
A. dental floss	B. bacteria	C. removal of plaque	D. plaque
Question 44. According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true EXCEPT ______.
A. It consists of acid producing bacteria
B. It is not affected by eating sweets
C. It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing
D. It reduces the positive effect of saliva
Question 45. We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is ______.
A. It strengthens tooth enamel	
B. It stimulates saliva production
C. It makes teeth whiter	
D. It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care
Question 46. What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?
A. All sweets should be avoided.
B. Sweets should be eaten with care.
C. It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.
D. Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.
Question 47. The author of the passage states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in your saliva increases ______.
A. with the amount of sweets you eat	B. with the number of times you eat sweets
C. if you eat sweets with your meals	D. if you eat sticky sweets
Question 48. The word "scrape off" is closest in meaning to ______.
A. repel	B. remove	C. dissolve 	D. rub together with	
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. You can stay in the flat for free, you pay the bills.
A. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free.
B. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat.
C. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it.
D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free.
Question 50. It is such an interesting book. I have read it three times.
A. Such was the interesting book that I have read it three times.
B. Should the book be interesting, I have read it three times.
C. Such interesting was book that I have read it three times.
D. Only if it is an interesting book have I read it three times.
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