Đề kiểm tra chất lượng ôn thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 - Năm học 2018-2019 - Đề số 083

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Đề kiểm tra chất lượng ôn thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 - Năm học 2018-2019 - Đề số 083
 SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN
(Đề thi gồm: 05 trang)
ĐỀ KTCL ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018-2019
Môn: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 083 
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Họ và tên thí sinh:. SBD:
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 01. A. climbed	B. crashed	C. escaped	D. announced
Question 02. A. historic	B. honesty 	C. honorable	D. heir
Mark the letter A,B,C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 03. A. arrive	B. follow	C. teacher	D. offer
Question 04. A. counselor	B. description	C. inspector	D. adoption
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 05.The lion has long been a symbol of strength, powerful and cruelty.
 	A. powerful	B. strength	C. long been 	D. symbol
Question 06. Those of you who signed up for Dr. Daniel’s anthropology class should get their books as soon as possible. 
A. their books 	B. Those of 	C. for	D. anthropology
Question 07. The boy is considering for the leading role in the school play.
 	A. is considering	B. leading role	C. the	D. school play
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 08. I can’t walk in these high-heeled boots. I keep________.
A. falling over	B. falling back 	C falling off	D. falling out
Question 09. _______ non-verbal language is _______ important aspect of interpersonal communication.
A. Ø - an
B. A - the
C. The - Ø
D. The – Ø
Question 10. The song has_________ been selected for the 22nd Sea Games in Vietnam.
A. officially
B. official
C. office
D. officer
Question 11. When friends insist on_________ expensive gifts, it makes people uncomfortable.
A. their accepting 
C. they accepting
B. them to accept
D. they accept
Question 12. The teacher as well as his students _______ at the school meeting yet.
A. hasn’t arrived 
B. arrived
C. haven’t arrived
D. not arriving
Question 13. It gets_________ to understand what the professor has explained.
A. more and more difficult 
C. difficult more and more
B. more difficult than
D. the more difficult
Question 14. His_________ of the school regulations really can’t be ignored any longer.
A. disregard	B. carelessness	C. inattention 	D. unfamiliarity
Question 15. Most of the diseases are caused by the unhygienic surroundings ______ people live.
A. in which 	B. in where 	C. in that	D. which 
Question 16. To solve this problem, it is advisable_________.
A. that a drastic measure be adopted	B. that to adopt a drastic measure
C. a drastic measure to be adopted	D. that a drastic measure is adopted	
Question 17. “Buy me a newspaper on your way back, _________?”
A. will you 	B. don’t you	C. can’t you 	D. do you
Question 18. _________ that she burst into tears. 
A. So angry was she 	 	B. Such her anger was 
C. Her angry was such 	D. She was so anger
Question 19.By the end of this year, Nam_________ English for seven years, but he will still need more training and experience before he masters the language.
A. will have been studying
C. has been studying
B. has studied
D. will be studying
Mart the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions.
Question 20. Mai: “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to us.” Nam: “____________”
A. Not at all. Don’t mention it.
C. All right. Do you know how much it cost?
B. Actually speaking. I myself don’t like it.
D. Welcome! It’s very nice of you.
Question 21. John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” 
Laura: “____________”
A. There is no doubt about it. 	B. Of course not. You bet. 
C. Well, that’s very surprising 	D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. As the summer sun sent scattered rays through the maple and oak leaves overhead, the young deer stood frozen, making it almost impossible for the hikers to see her.
A. not moving 	B. invisible 	C. very cold 	D. not melted
Question 23. He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking whenever we meet.
A. irritates me 	B. steers me	C. moves me	 D. frightens me
Mart the letter A,B,C or D to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honor the check. 
A. different 	B. genuine	C. fake	D. similar 
Question 25. I need everybody’s help. The wedding is tomorrow and we haven’t even started with the decorations yet. We have no time to lose.
A. have some extra time 	B. remember what time it is 
C. have to start right now 	D. must do everything quickly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. The children ran away to avoid being bitten by the dog.
A. The children ran away for fear the dog might bite them.
B. The children ran away for fear of biting by the dog.
C. The children ran away so that the dog can’t bite them.
D. The children ran away with a view to avoid being bitten by the dog.
Question 27. Mary regrets not studying hard for her exams. 
A. Mary wishes she had studied hard for her exams.	
B. Mary wishes to study hard for her exams. 
C. If Mary studied hard, he would not regret about her exams.
D. If only Mary studied hard for her exams.
Question 28. He said, “Hurrah! We have won the match!”
A. He exclaimed with joy that they had won the match.	
B. He said, “Hurrah” that they had won the match.
C. He said that they have won the match.	
D. He said with joy that they have won the match.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers.
A. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant doesn’t appear to attract much business.
B. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
C. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.
D. if it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
Question 30. They are my two sisters. They aren’t teachers like me. 
A. They are my two sisters, neither of whom is teacher like me.
B. They are my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.
C. They are my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.
D. Unlike me, neither of my two sisters aren’t teachers.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
	Laughing is good for the body and mind. When we laugh we breathe more oxygen into our body, (31)________ helps to keep us healthy. Endorphins or happy chemicals, are released in the body, and you feel more relaxed and happy. Laugher also brings people together to (32)________ some fun. Companies who have run laughter yoga workshops find that they have advantages for both employers and employees. 	People who are happy at work are more hard-working and (33)________ more money for the company. Also, people who can laugh together (34)________ more successfully. In general, people do better at work when they feel happy and relaxed.
A Danish company who used Laughter Yoga for a year reported an increase (35)________ sales of 40 percent over the previous year. Following Laughter Yoga session, a Hawaiian timeshare company reported the highest sales of the year – double their target figures.
Question 31. A. which 	B. that 	C. how	D. what
Question 32. A. share	B. divide	C. give 	D. offer
Question 33. A. make 	B. do	C. provide 	D. take 
Question 34. A. communicate 	B. to communicate	C. communicating 	D. communicates
Question 35. A. in 	B. on 	C. at 	D. through
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C and D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Ocean Currents and the Turning of the Tide
If you take a seat at the beach and look out across the water, you’ll soon notice that oceans have a rhythm of their own. Throughout the course of the day, sea levels will rise and fall, and water will flow through routes and end up in different places. But how does it all work?
One force at play is tides, which are the alternating water levels of the ocean. There are two major gravitational forces which cause tides: the sun and the moon. The moon’s force has a tugging effect on oceans which causes them to bulge outwards on opposite sides of the planet. Solar tides operate according to the same principles. However, they are only about 50 percent as strong due to the distance between the sun and the earth.
As tides rise and fall, they create tidal currents. The strongest tidal currents occur at the height of both high and low tides. Unlike other currents, they do not flow in a continuous stream. Far from shore, tidal currents don’t have much of an effect. Yet when they pass through narrow area, like harbours and bays, tidal currents can displace plants, animals, and sediment. Although they may certainly shake things up, not all of the damage is negative. Tidal currents can spread fish eggs across long distances to assist fertilization, in addition to transporting key nutrients.
Another category of currents is ocean currents. These currents occur near the top of the water, and are mainly powered by the wind. One example of these is coastal currents, which are those beachgoers encounter when going for a swim. One of the strongest and most well-known currents is the Gulf Stream, which brings warm water from the Gulf of Mexico all the way to Western Europe. Meanwhile, Deep Ocean currents are a powerful force in the depths of oceans. The strongest of these has been nicknamed the global conveyor belt, and it moves much slower than surface currents. Although we can’t see it in operation, it’s about 16 times as powerful as all the earth’s rivers put together. As the global conveyor belt pushes water around the planet, it carries nutrition and carbon dioxide to places that truly need them. In the end, although there are several currents working on oceans simultaneously, they each seem to perform a necessary function that creates balance for life in the sea.
Question 36. What might be another good title for the passage?
	A. The Secrets behind the Seas	B. The Dangers of Ocean Currents
	C. The Wonderful Sea of Dreams	D. The Pollution of the World’s Oceans
Question 37. The word “displace” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_________.
	A. move	B. bury	C. keep	D. destroy
Question 38. The word “these” in paragraph 4 refers to_________.
	A. Deep Ocean currents	B. the Gulf Stream currents
	C. the depths of oceans	D. forces to cause ocean currents
Question 39. How do moon tides different from solar tides?
	A. They are stronger than solar tides.	C. They only occur during the nighttime.
	B. They operate using different principles.	D. They occur less frequently than solar tides.
Question 40.The most powerful tidal currents occur_________.
	A. when tides are low and high	B. when tides are low
	C. when tides are high	D. when it is a windy day
Question 41. What happens when tidal currents pass through harbours and bays?
	A. They transport things around.	B. They always cause negative events.
	C. They destroy many towns.	D. They kill lots of plants and fish.
Question 42. What can be inferred from the passage?
	A. People in Western Europe may see the Gulf Stream.
	B. There are ocean currents which are more powerful than the global conveyor belt.
	C. The moon’s force has the same effect on oceans on the opposite sides of the earth.
	D. Ocean currents play a role in creating life balance in the sea.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C and D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the most impressive Seven Wonders of the World. Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake TonIe Sap, the largest freshwater lake in Asia, Angkor was the seat of power for the Khmer Empire from the ninth to the fifteenth century. The ruins of Angkor are documented as some of the most impressive ones in the world, rivaling the pyramids of Giza in Egypt. Why this mighty civilization died out is a question that archeologists are now only beginning to ponder. The answer, it turns out, may be linked with the availability of fresh water.
One possible explanation for the downfall of the Khmer Empire has to do with the inhabitants’ irrigation system. The temple and palaces of Angkor were constructed around a series of artificial reservoirs and canals which were annually flooded to capacity by the Mekong River. Once filled, they were used to irrigate the surrounding rice paddies and farmland during the course of the year. Farmers were completely dependent upon the water for their crucial rice crop. Without consistent irrigation, the farmers would have been unable to maintain functional crop production.
Scientists speculate that toward the end of the Khmer Empire the hydraulic systems of the reservoirs and canals broke down. The construction of hundreds of sandstone temples and palaces required an enormous amount of physical labor. In addition, as the capital of the Khmer Empire, Angkor contained upwards of one hundred thousand people who resided in and around Angkor. In order to feed so many people, the local farmers were driven to grow food quicker and more efficiently. After centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was pushed beyond its capacity. Soil erosion, nutrient depletion, and the loss of water led to decrease in the food supply. With less food available, the people of Angkor slowly began to migrate to other parts of Cambodia thus leaving the marvelous city of Angkor to be swallowed by the jungle. Therefore, it is speculated that the Khmer Empire may have fallen victim to its own decrepit infrastructure.
Question 43.  What is the passage mainly about?
A. A possible explanation for the decline of a civilization. 
B. Modern day agricultural procedures in Cambodia.
C. The essential role water plays in farming. 
D. Religious temples of the ancient Khmer Empire.
Question 44. The word “artificial” in the paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. man-made	B. numerous	C. natural	D. insincere
Question 45. The word “decrepit” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to_________.
A. deteriorated	B. incomplete	C. beneficial	D. disorganized
Question 46. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to_________.
A. reservoirs and canals	B. temples and palaces C. rice paddies	D. farmland
Question 47. All the following are mentioned as events that can affect food supply EXCEPT_________.
A. contamination of soil	B. erosion of soil 
C. reduction of nutrients   	 	D. loss of water supply
Question 48.  The passage preceding this passage most likely discusses_________.
A. the other six wonders of the world 
B. religious practices of the people of Angkor
C. the form of government practiced by the Khmer Empire 
D. architecture of ancient Asian civilization
Question 49. Why does the author mention the hydraulic systems of the reservoirs?
A. They became non-functional due to overuse. 
B. They supplied irrigation from the Indian Ocean.
C. They were destroyed by nearby warrior tribes. 
D. They helped transport the sandstones for constructing temples.
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that the inhabitants of the Khmer Empire_________.
A. depended upon rice as their main source of food
B. were intentionally starved by the farmers
C. lost their food source due to excess rainfall
D. supplemented their diets with meat hunted in the nearby jungles
_________THE END________

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