Đề kiểm tra chất lượng ôn thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 - Năm học 2017-2018 - Đề số 146

 SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN
(Đề thi gồm: 04 trang)
ĐỀ KTCL ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017-2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 146
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Họ và tên thí sinh:. SBD:
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from 
 the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. laughed 	B. sacrificed 	C. cooked 	D. explained
Question 2: A. airports 	B. ways 	C. questions 	D. pictures
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in 
 the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. verbal 	B. signal 	C. common 	D. attract
Question 4: A. historian 	B. certificate 	C. academic 	D. curriculum 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5. Because the highway system was built 40 years ago , most of the roads now need to repair. A B C D
Question 6. Pointing in someone is usually considered impolite but it is acceptable when a 
teacher wants to get someone’s attention in class. A B C D
Question 7. If a student takes a course on Computer Science, it will take him four years doing the course. A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each 
of the following questions. 
Question 8: Many applicants find a job interview_______ if they are not well-prepared for it.
 	A. impressive 	B. stressful 	C. threatening 	D. time-consuming
Question 9: He managed to win the race_______ hurting his foot before the race.
A. in spite of 	B. despite of 	C. although 	D. because of 
Question 10: Hardly_______ when the argument began.
 	A. when he arrived B. he had arrived C. than he arrived 	D. had he arrived 
Question 11:	Housework is less tiring and boring thanks to the invention of_______ devices.
 	A. environment-friendly B. time-consuming C. labor-saving D. pollution-free
Question 12: By the end of the 21st century, scientists_______ a cure for the common cold.
 	A. will find B. will have found C. will be finding D. will have been finding
Question 13: Last Sunday was_______ that we took a drive in the country.
 	A. so beautiful day 	B. such a beautiful day 
 	C. so a beautiful day 	D. such beautiful day
Question 14: Widespread forest destruction_______ in this particular area.
 	A. must have seen 	B. ought to see 	C. could have seen 	D. can be seen
Question 15: The greater the demand, _______ the price.
 	A. the highest 	B. the high 	C. higher 	D. the higher 
Question 16: After twenty years collecting stamps, Mike_______ interested in them.
 	A. is not longer 	B. no longer	 	C. no longer is	 	D. is no longer
Question 17:	He still hasn’t really_______ the death of his mother.
 	A. recovered	 	B. got over	 	C. cured 	D. treated
Question 18: He asked me_______.
 	A. since when I’m waiting 	B. how long I have been waiting	
 	C. how long I had been waiting 	D. since when I waited
Question 19: __________ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat. 
 	A. Had you arrived	B. If you arrived	C. Were you arrived	D. If you hadn’t arrived
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
 Question 20: - Charles: “ Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?” - Lisa: “____________”
 	A. I’m sorry. I don’t know that. 	B. Not at all. Go ahead.
 	C. Not so bad. And you ? 	D. That would be nice.
Question 21: - John: “What kind of job would you like? - Tim: “____________.“
 	A. All of them are 	B. I heard it was very good
 	C. Anything to do with computers 	D. Anytime after next week 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the bold, italic word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone.
 	A. terrified	B. troubled	C. happy	D. disappointed
Question 23: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
 	A. taking off	B. setting up	C. growing well	D. closing down
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold, italic word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do.
 	A. interested	B. dissatisfied	C. excited	D. shocked
Question 25: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
 	A. gently	B. cleverly	C. reasonably	D. brutally
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb.
 	A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship.
 	B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb.
 	C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb.
 	D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb.
Question 27: Neil always forgets his wife’s birthday.
 	A. At no time Neil remembers his wife’s birthday. 
 	B. Neil never remembers his wife’s birthday.
 	C. Neil sometimes remembers his wife’s birthday.
 	D. Neil remembers his wife’s birthday all the time. 
Question 28: If you practise harder you will have better results.
 	A. The harder you practise, the best results you will have.
 	B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you will have.
 	C. The hardest you practise, the most results you will have.
 	D. The harder you practise, the better results you will have.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
Question 29: A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient.
 	A. A waitress, who served us , was very impolite and impatient.
 	B. A waitress which served us., was very impolite and impatient.
 	C. A waitress who served us was very impolite and impatient.
 	D. A waitress whom served us , was very impolite and impatient.
Question 30: She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.
 	A. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
 	B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.
 	C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
 	D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The (31)_______ class size is twelve and the average is ten. We use modern methods (32)_______ teaching  and learning, and the school has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only be successful in improving your English; however, if you work hard and practise speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short (33)_______ in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (34)_______ at the most suitable level.
The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide (35)_______ of situations at the advanced knowledge. You will learn how to use language correctly and appropriately when you talk to native speakers. In addition, you will develop such study skills as reading efficiently, writing articles and reports, and note-taking from books and lectures.
Question 31: A. maximum  	B. minimum  	C. small  	D. large 
Question 32: A. in   	B. of   	C. on   	D. for
Question 33: A. test   	B. exam  	C. course  	D. lesson 
Question 34: A. form   	B. class  	C. grade  	D. course 
Question 35: A. variety  	B. amount  	C. number  	D. lot 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
 Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion off 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two century, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English, speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
 Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the world's science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airport, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world.
Question 36. What is the main topic of the passage?
 	A. The number of non-native users of English.
 	B. The French influence on the English language.
 	C. The expansion of English as an international language.
 	D. The use of English for science and technology.
Question 37. In the first paragraph, the word "emerged" is closest in meaning to 	
 	A. appeared	 	B. hailed	 	C. frequented	 	D. engaged
Question 38. In the first paragraph, the word "elements" is closest in meaning to 	
 	A. declaration	 	B. features	 	C. curiosities	 	D. customs
Question 39. Approximately, ________ English begin to be used beyond England? 
 	A. In 1066	 	B. around 1350	C. before 1600	D. after 1600
Question 40. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world________.
 	A. the slave trade	B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries	D. colonization
Question 41. In the second paragraph, the word "stored" is closest in meaning to________.	
 	A. bought	 	B. saved	 	C. spent	 	D. valued
Question 42. According to the passage, approximately ________ non-native users of English are there in the world today? 
 	A. a quarter million	B. half a million	C. 350 million	 	D. 700 million
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
 Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
 Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers.
 In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 
report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee. (Source: TOEFL Reading) 
Question 43. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work_______.
 	A. as a researcher	 	B. at college
 	C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service	D. as a writer
Question 44. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
 	A. oceanography	B. zoology	 C. literature	 	D. history
Question 45. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of 
 	A. 26	 	B. 29	 	C. 34	 	D. 45
Question 46. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind _______. A. was outdated	 	B. became more popular than her other books
 	C. was praised by critics	 	D. sold many copies
Question 47. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us?
 	A. printed matter	 	B. talks with experts
 C. a research expedition	 	D. letters from scientists
Question 48. The word “reckless” in line 11 is closest in meaning to_______.
 	A. unnecessary	B. limited	 	C. continuous	 	D. irresponsible
Question 49. The word “flawed” in line 14 is closest in meaning to_______.
 	A. faulty	 B. deceptive	 	C. logical	 	D. offensive 
Question 50. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee (lines 14-15)?
 	A. To provide an example of government propaganda.
 	B. To support Carson’s ideas.
 	C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment.
 	D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims.
___________THE END____________
 SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN
(Đề thi gồm: 04 trang)
ĐỀ KTCL ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017-2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 146
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Họ và tên thí sinh:. SBD:
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from 
 the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
 Question 1: A. laughed 	B. sacrificed 	C. cooked 	D. explained
 Question 2: A. airports 	B. ways 	C. questions 	D. pictures
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in 
 the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
 Question 3: A. verbal 	B. signal 	C. common 	D. attract
 Question 4: A. historian 	B. certificate 	C. academic 	D. curriculum 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5. Because the highway system was built 40 years ago, most of the roads now need to repair. A B C D
Question 6. Pointing in someone is usually considered impolite but it is acceptable when a 
teacher wants to get someone’s attention in class. A B C D
Question 7. If a student takes a course on Computer Science, it will take him four years doing the course. A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each 
of the following questions. 
Question 8: Many applicants find a job interview_______ if they are not well-prepared for it.
 	A. impressive 	B. stressful 	C. threatening 	D. time-consuming
Question 9: He managed to win the race_______ hurting his foot before the race.
A. in spite of 	B. despite of 	C. although 	D. because of 
Question 10: Hardly_______ when the argument began.
 	A. when he arrived B. he had arrived C. than he arrived 	D. had he arrived 
Question 11:	Housework is less tiring and boring thanks to the invention of_______ devices.
 	A. environment-friendly B. time-consuming C. labor-saving D. pollution-free
Question 12: By the end of the 21st century, scientists_______ a cure for the common cold.
 	A. will find B. will have found C. will be finding D. will have been finding
Question 13: Last Sunday was_______ that we took a drive in the country.
 	A. so beautiful day 	B. such a beautiful day 
 	C. so a beautiful day 	D. such beautiful day
Question 14: Widespread forest destruction_______ in this particular area.
 	A. must have seen 	B. ought to see 	C. could have seen 	D. can be seen
Question 15: The greater the demand, _______ the price.
 	A. the highest 	B. the high 	C. higher 	D. the higher 
Question 16: After twenty years collecting stamps, Mike_______ interested in them.
 	A. is not longer 	B. no longer	 	C. no longer is	 	D. is no longer
Question 17:	He still hasn’t really_______ the death of his mother.
 	A. recovered	 	B. got over	 	C. cured 	D. treated
Question 18: He asked me_______.
 	A. since when I’m waiting 	B. how long I have been waiting	
 	C. how long I had been waiting 	D. since when I waited
Question 19: __________ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat. 
 	A. Had you arrived	B. If you arrived	C. Were you arrived	D. If you hadn’t arrived
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
 Question 20: - Charles: “ Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?” - Lisa: “____________”
 	A. I’m sorry. I don’t know that. 	B. Not at all. Go ahead.
 	C. Not so bad. And you ? 	D. That would be nice.
Question 21: - John: “What kind of job would you like? - Tim: “____________.“
 	A. All of them are 	B. I heard it was very good
 	C. Anything to do with computers 	D. Anytime after next week 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone.
 	A. terrified	B. troubled	C. happy	D. disappointed
Question 23: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
 	A. taking off	B. setting up	C. growing well	D. closing down
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do.
 	A. interested	B. dissatisfied	C. excited	D. shocked
Question 25: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
 	A. gently	B. cleverly	C. reasonably	D. brutally
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb.
 	A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship.
 	B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb.
 	C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb.
 	D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb.
Question 27: Neil always forgets his wife’s birthday.
 	A. At no time Neil remembers his wife’s birthday. 
 	B. Neil never remembers his wife’s birthday.
 	C. Neil sometimes remembers his wife’s birthday.
 	D. Neil remembers his wife’s birthday all the time. 
Question 28: If you practise harder, you will have better results.
 	A. The harder you practise, the best results you will have.
 	B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you will have.
 	C. The hardest you practise, the most results you will have.
 	D. The harder you practise, the better results you will have.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
Question 29: A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient.
 	A. A waitress, who served us , was very impolite and impatient.
 	B. A waitress which served us., was very impolite and impatient.
 	C. A waitress who served us was very impolite and impatient.
 	D. A waitress whom served us , was very impolite and impatient.
Question 30: She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.
 	A. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
 	B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.
 	C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
 	D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The (31)_______ class size is twelve and the average is ten. We use modern methods (32)_______ teaching  and learning, and the school has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only be successful in improving your English; however, if you work hard and practise speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short (33)_______ in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (34)_______ at the most suitable level.
The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide (35)_______ of situations at the advanced knowledge. You will learn how to use language correctly and appropriately when you talk to native speakers. In addition, you will develop such study skills as reading efficiently, writing articles and reports, and note-taking from books and lectures.
Question 31: A. maximum  	B. minimum  	C. small  	D. large 
Question 32: A. in   	B. of   	C. on   	D. for
Question 33: A. test   	B. exam  	C. course  	D. lesson 
Question 34: A. form   	B. class  	C. grade  	D. course 
Question 35: A. variety  	B. amount  	C. number  	D. lot 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
 Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion off 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two century, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English, speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
 Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the world's science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airport, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world.
Question 36. What is the main topic of the passage?
 	A. The number of non-native users of English.
 	B. The French influence on the English language.
 	C. The expansion of English as an international language.
 	D. The use of English for science and technology.
Question 37. In the first paragraph, the word "emerged" is closest in meaning to________.
 	A. appeared	 	B. hailed	 	C. frequented	 	D. engaged
Question 38. In the first paragraph, the word "elements" is closest in meaning to________.
 	A. declaration	 	B. features	 	C. curiosities	 	D. customs
Question 39. Approximately, ________ English begin to be used beyond England? 
 	A. In 1066	 	B. around 1350	C. before 1600	D. after 1600
Question 40. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world________.
 	A. the slave trade	B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries	D. colonization
Question 41. In the second paragraph, the word "stored" is closest in meaning to________.	
 	A. bought	 	B. saved	 	C. spent	 	D. valued
Question 42. According to the passage, approximately ________ non-native users of English are there in the world today? 
 	A. a quarter million	B. half a million	C. 350 million	 	D. 700 million
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
 Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
 Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers.
 In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 
report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee. (Source: TOEFL Reading) 
Question 43. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work_______.
 	A. as a researcher	 	B. at college
 	C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service	D. as a writer
Question 44. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
 	A. oceanography	B. zoology	 C. literature	 	D. history
Question 45. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of ________.
 	A. 26	 	B. 29	 	C. 34	 	D. 45
Question 46. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind _______. A. was outdated	 	B. became more popular than her other books
 	C. was praised by critics	 	D. sold many copies
Question 47. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us?
 	A. printed matter	 	B. talks with experts
 	C. a research expedition	 	D. letters from scientists
Question 48. The word “reckless” in line 11 is closest in meaning to_______.
 	A. unnecessary	B. limited	 	C. continuous	 	D. irresponsible
Question 49. The word “flawed” in line 14 is closest in meaning to_______.
 	A. faulty	 B. deceptive	 	C. logical	 	D. offensive 
Question 50. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee (lines 14-15)?
 	A. To provide an example of government propaganda.
 	B. To support Carson’s ideas.
 	C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment.
 	D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims.
___________THE END____________