Đề khảo sát môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 11 năm học 2015-2016 - Mã đề 132 - Trường trung học phổ thông Nguyễn Trãi

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRÃI
ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT LỚP 11 LẦN I
NĂM HỌC 2015 – 2016
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Mã đề thi 132
Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (8 POINTS)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Question 1: A. sure	B. sun	C. safe	D. solar
Question 2: A. confusion	B. dimension	C. tension	D. expansion
Question 3: A. ink	B. pink	C. increase	D. thank
II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. 
Question 4: A. eleven	B. history	C. different	D. nursery
Question 5: A. economic	B. entertainment	C. introduction	D. experience
III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
Question 6: Ann: “Where’s Polly?” 	John: “She is in her room ______.”
A. studies	B. studying	C. is studying	D. has studied
Question 7: Having opened the bottle, ______ for everyone.
A. Mike pouring the drink	B. the drink was poured
C. the drink was being poured	D. Mike poured the drink
Question 8: Martin tried on three jackets, _____ fitted him.
A. all of those	B. none of them	C. none	D. none of which
Question 9: A home computer _____ an opportunity for convenient and efficient work at home.
A. which provides	B. provides	C. providing it	D. to be providing
Question 10: Minh: “Today’s my 20th birthday.” Ha : “______”
A. Take care!	B. Many happy returns!
C. Have a good time!	D. I don’t understand.
Question 11: You need more exercise - you should ______ jogging.
A. take up	B. try on	C. carry out	D. hold up
Question 12: She was ______, with perfectly structured high cheekbones, which impressed me immediately.
A. a girl so beautiful	B. such beautiful girl	C. so beautiful a girl	D. so beautiful girl
Question 13: Their washing - machine was out of ______ , so they couldn’t wash any clothes.
A. activity	B. condition	C. work	D. order
Question 14: ______ some more money with me, I could have taken a taxi.
A. If I have had	B. Had I had	C. If I had	D. Have I had
Question 15: There was no _____ in waiting longer than half an hour so we left.
A. use	B. good	C. point	D. worth
Question 16: He went _________ a bad cold just before Christmas.
A. over	B. through	C. in for	D. down with
Question 17: Minh was the winner and he was _____ a set of CDs for studying English.
A. given	B. awarded	C. prized	D. received
Question 18: The students gathered in the auditorium to hear the guest speaker _____ a speech on on-line marketing.
A. to deliver	B. delivered	C. delivers	D. deliver
Question 19: I remember _____ round the exhibition a couple of years ago.
A. being shown	B. having shown	C. showing	D. to be shown
Question 20: I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my______.
A. cup of tea	B. sweets and candy	C. piece of cake	D. biscuit
Question 21: _____ quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn’t want to answer his phone call.
A. Because having	B. Having not
C. Having	D. Because of having not
Question 22: Someone phoned, and I told _____ you were out.
A. him	B. them	C. her	D. one
Question 23: My mother is a caring woman. She is very _____ to other people’s feelings.
A. sensible	B. sense	C. senseless	D. sensitive
Question 24: Tim: “More peas?’’ Ann: “_______”.
A. No, that’ll do. Thank you	B. Help yourself to them
C. My honor	D. No more available
Question 25: They came to inspect the house _______ buying it.
A. on account of	B. in the event of	C. with a view to	D. with reference
IV. Choose the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences. 
Question 26: Last Saturday the representatives of three classes of my school took part in the annual final English Competition organized by our English teachers.
A. soon	B. first	C. early	D. second
Question 27: It took 1750 years for the world population to reach 625 million.
A. run back	B. go back	C. come back	D. hold back
V. Choose the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences. 
Question 28: The same questions repeated over and over soon made them weary.
A. disturbed	B. suspicious	C. cautious	D. tired
Question 29: It was great to see monkeys in their natural habitat.
A. forest	B. home	C. land	D. sky
VI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underline part that needs correcting. 
Question 30: The food that Mark is cooking in the kitchen is smelling delicious.
A. is cooking	B. delicious	C. is smelling	D. The food
Question 31: The work performed by these people are not worth our paying them any longer.
A. any longer	B. are	C. by these people	D. worth our paying
Question 32: Despite his smiling face, the second-place contestant is more sadder than the winner.
A. the second-place	B. more sadder	C. Despite	D. smiling
Question 33: Laura always behaves nicely, this helps her get on well with everyone.
A. nicely	B. get	C. with	D. this
Question 34: Hardly he had entered the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet.
A. that he had	B. Hardly he had	C. forgotten	D. the office
VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 35 to 44. 
 Smoking causes lung cancer, heart disease, and breathing problems. Worldwide, about three million people die every year because of smoking – that’s about one (35)____ every ten seconds! In fact, smoking is the (36) ____ of almost 20 percent of all deaths in the developed countries of the world. Smoking doesn’t just (37) ____ the smoker, it hurts other people, too. When a pregnant (38) ____ smokes, she is hurting her developing (39) ____ when a man (40) ____ at home, his wife and children are also breathing in smoke and can become sick. Even though most people understand the (41) ____ effects of smoking, they continue to smoke. The (42) ____ of women and teenagers who smoke is increasing. Cigarette companies make advertisements that (43) ____ these groups of people so that they (44) ____ to buy cigarettes.
Question 35: A. death	B. end	C. decrease	D. loss
Question 36: A. reason	B. basis	C. origin	D. cause
Question 37: A. destroy	B. danger	C. injure	D. hurt
Question 38: A. woman	B. man	C. child	D. wife
Question 39: A. love	B. baby	C. youth	D. children
Question 40: A. enjoy	B. relax	C. cigarettes	D. smokes
Question 41: A. profitable	B. harmed	C. beneficial	D. harmful
Question 42: A. total	B. quantity	C. amount	D. number
Question 43: A. worry	B. matter	C. concern	D. interest
Question 44: A. continue	B. retain	C. preserve	D. maintain
VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54. 
Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun’s rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant’s gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as   low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day.
Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to rehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication. The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.
Question 45: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Diseased of desert animals	B. Human use of desert animals.
C. Weather variations in the desert	D. Adaptations of desert animals.
Question 46: According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?
A. It helps them hide from predators
B. It keeps them cool at night.
C. It helps them see their young at night.
D. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors
Question 47: The word “maintaining”  is closest in meaning to _________.
A. delaying	B. preserving	C. measuring	D. inheriting
Question 48: The author uses of Grant’s gazelle as an example of
A. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel
B. an animal with a low average temperature
C. a desert animal with a constant body temperature
D. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures
Question 49: When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?
A. Just before sunrise	B. In the middle of the day
C. Just after drinking	D. Just after sunset
Question 50: The word “tolerate” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. replace	B. compensate	C. reduce	D. endure
Question 51: What causes water intoxication?
A. Bacteria in water.	B. Lack of water.
C. Drinking polluted water.	D. Drinking too much water very quickly
Question 52: Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?
A. To contrast them to desert mammals
B. To show how they use camels.
C. To show how they have adapted to desert life.
D. To give instructions about desert survival.
Question 53: The word “obtain” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. get	B. save	C. digest	D. carry
Question 54: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?
A. Eating while dehydrated
B. Drinking water quickly
C. Variation in body temperatures
D. Being active at night
IX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64. 
To date, Canada has produced only one classic children’s tale to rank with Alice’s Adventures in wonderland and the works of Mark Twain; this was Lucy Maud Montgomery’s Anne of Green Gables. Lucy Maud Montgomery was born in Clinton, Prince Edward Island. Her mother died soon after her birth, and when her father went to Saskatchewan to assume a business position, she moved in with her grandparents in Cavendish, Prince Edward Island. There she went to school and later qualified to be a teacher.
 Montgomery wrote the Anne books while living in Cavendish and helping her grandmother at the post office. The first of the books, Anne of Green Gabbles, was published in 1908, and in the next three years she wrote two sequels. Like Montgomery, the heroine of the book is taken in by an elderly couple who lives in the fictional town of Avonlea, and Montgomery incorporated many events from her life in Cavendish into the Anne books.
 In 1911, Montgomery married Evan Macdonald and the couple soon moved to Ontario, where she wrote many other books. However, it was her first efforts that secured her prominence, and the Anne books are still read all around the world. Her novels have helped create a warm picture of Prince Edward Island’s special character. Several movies, a television series, and a musical play have been based on her tales, and today visitors scour the Island for locations described in the book.
Question 55: The main purpose of this passage is to_____.
A. contrast Canadian children’s literature with that of other countries.
B. show the similarities between Montgomery’s life and that of her fictional character Anne.
C. provide a brief introduction to Prince Edward Island.
D. introduce Montgomery and her Anne books.
Question 56: According to the passage, Montgomery was raised primarily______.
A. by her father	B. in an orphanage
C. by her grandparents	D. by her mother
Question 57: Approximately when did Lucy Maud Montgomery write the two sequels to her book Anne of Green Gables?
A. From 1874 to 1908	B. From 1908 to 1911	C. From 1911 to 1913	D. From 1913 to 1918
Question 58: The word “elderly” in line 8 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. sly	B. kindly	C. old	D. friendly
Question 59: In the Anne books, the main character lives in_____.
A. the town of Cavendish	B. the town of Avonlea
C. Ontario	D. Saskatchewan
Question 60: Which of the following can be concluded from the passage about Anne books?
A. They were at least partially autobiographical.
B. They were not popular until after Montgomery had died.
C. They were not as successful as Montgomery’s later works.
D. They were influenced by the works of Mark Twain.
Question 61: Ontario was the place where ______.
A. Montgomery wrote two sequels	B. Montgomery became famous
C. Montgomery wrote other books	D. Montgomery got married
Question 62: The word “prominence” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. effort	B. permanence	C. reputation	D. excellence
Question 63: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “character” in paragraph 3?
A. a person in a novel	B. nature	C. location	D. a written symbol
Question 64: All of the following have been based on the Anne books EXCEPT_____.
A. a ballet	B. a play	C. movies	D. a television series
SECTION B: WRITING (2 POINTS)
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
Question 65: The keeper had no sooner opened the cage door than the lion attacked him.
 Hardly _______________________________________________________.
Question 66: They regret ever doing business with him.
 They wish ____________________________________________________. 
Question 67 : This is the most interesting novel I’ve ever read.
 I have never ____________________________________________________. 
Question 68 : It is thought that the accident was caused by human error.
	 The accident___________________________________________________.
Question 69: It was the goalkeeper who saved the match for us.
	 If it hadn’t_____________________________________________________.
Part II. In about 120-140 words, write a paragraph about one of the most impressive traditional festivals in your country.
..
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-the end-
Đáp án phần tự luận
PHẦN VIẾT (2 điểm)
 I (0,5 điểm)
Question 65. Hardly had the keeper opened the cage door when the lion attacked him.
Question 66. They wish they had never/hadn’t done business with him
Question 67. I have never read such an interesting novel before.
 Hoặc: I have never read a more interesting novel than this (one/ novel).
Question 68. The accident is thought to have been caused by human error.
Question 69. If it hadn’t been for the goalkeeper, we could have lost the match.