Đề khảo sát học sinh giỏi lớp 9 môn Tiếng Anh - Năm học 2018-2019

ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT HSG LỚP 9 
NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút(Không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi gồm 06 trang )
SECTION I: LISTENING (15 pts)
I: You will hear part of a radio interview with a woman who sailed round the world on her own. For question 1 to 10, complete the sentences with suitable word or phrase. You will hear the recording twice. (10 points)
.(2)...
.(1)...
Anna was employed by a 	 when she first started sailing.
.(3)...
The idea of sailing round the world came from a book called 
. (4)..
Anna spent some time the boat before taking it out to sea
. (5)..
Anna tested her boat on a trip which lasted for only 	 because it was damaged
.(6)...
Anna got the money she needed to make the trip from various companies
Anna’s worst problem during the trip was when she felt 	
(7)..
because the boat was going slowly
Anna found the in the Southern Ocean the most exiting part of the trip
. (9)..
.(8)...
On her return, Anna phoned the to ask for a certificate
Anna’s claim was doubted because she hadn’t been in contact with people on 
(10)..
during the trip
Anna’s story was finally believed after her had been checked. 
II: You will hear 5 young people talking about what make a good teacher. Choose from the list A-F which of the opinion each speaker expresses. Use the letter only once (5 pts)
A
A good teacher praises effort
Speaker 1
11
B
A good teacher knows the subject well
Speaker 2
12
C 
A good teacher is strict
Speaker 3
13
D
A good teacher is available outside the classroom
Speaker 4
14
E
A good teacher is entertaining
Speaker 5
15
F
A good teacher has experience
SECTION II: PHONETICS (5 pts)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in the same line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet (3 pts). 
16. A. hour	B. honey	C. honor	D. honest
17. A. steady	B. feature	C. meat	D. cheat
18. A. cough	B. enough	C. though	D. rough
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others in the same line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet (2 pts).
19. A. cognitive	B. concentrate	C. spectacular	D. fabulous
20. A. memory	B. charity	C. tendency	D. collection
SECTION III: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (30 pts)
I. Choose the word or phrase that best complete each sentence.(10 pts)
21. According to a recent survey, most people are on good ________ with their neighbors.
A. relations	B. acquaintances	C. relationships	D. terms
22. John: Congratulations! Your proposal won most votes! - Mary: _________
A. Thank you very much. That's great!	B. The same to you!	
C. Congratulations!	D. Not at all!
23. My pen pal Yoko comes from Tokyo, Japan. It’s a ______ city.
A. big busy capital 	B. busy capital big
C. busy big capital	D. capital big busy	
24. Whenever she encounters a new word, she often ________ in the dictionary.
A. fills it in	B. puts it on	C. gives it up	D. looks it up
25. I have two brothers, _______ are professional athletes. 
A. two of which 	B. two of whom 	C. both of whom    	D. two of them 
26. When I applied for my passports, I had to send my birth ______ with the application.
A. proof	B. certificate	C. paper	D. document
27. You can stay here ________ you don't make a bad noise.
 A. until	B. unless	C. so long as	D. otherwise
28. Plastic bags almost blocked the Buriganga river in Bangladesh and are widely ______ responsible for causing devastating floods there.
A. taken	B. held	C. shown	D. made
29. Human beings have a great influence ________ the rest of the world.
A. in 	B. at	C. with 	D. on
30. I am capable of finishing this project alone, ______?
A. are I	B. aren’t I	C. am I	D. am not I
II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets (7 pts)
31. His roommate ( always enter) ______ the room without knocking first, which annoys him a lot. 
32. By the time you come here again, this palace ( build) _____. 
33. It is required that tax increases _______ (announce) in tomorrow’s budget. 
34. I (see)____ an aunt in Chicago a couple of months ago, but I cancelled the trip because she got ill.
35. They (not sack) ______ Joss. He was the most creative person in their team.
36. The chancellor is constantly receiving suggestions for simplifying the tax system. These 
(on occasion be) _________quite sensible. 
37. Lam is in the garden now. He ( water)_______ the flowers for 2 hours.
III. Use the words given in CAPITAL at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. (8 pts)
Dutch bridge-builder
Pieter Lodewijk Kramer (1881–1961) was responsible for the
(38) .. of some of the most famous bridges in Amsterdam.
As road traffic increased in Amsterdam at the beginning of the last
century, the city started demolishing (39) .. older structures in
the city centre. But when workmen began pulling down the most
attractive bridges and (40) .. them with modern iron ones, there
was strong public (41) .. . As a result, the position of
architectural (42) .. was created, and in 1917 Kramer took up the
post.
Kramer built no fewer than 220 bridges. Each exemplifies Kramer’s
individual style: his acute sense of detail and his use of many
unusual (43) .. of stone and iron.
Kramer’s bridges, which are now a (44) .. part of the Amsterdam
landscape, were largely ignored until a Dutch museum presented
an (45) .. successful exhibition of his work in 1995.
 CONSTRUCT
 NUMBER
 PLACE
 APPROVE
 ADVICE
 COMBINE
 DISTINCT
 ASTONISH
IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from questions 46 to 50 ). Find out the mistakes and write the correct answers on your answer sheet. (5 pts)
Example: line 1: always is à is always
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
TRAVEL INSURANCE
When you go on holiday, it always is a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just in case something goes wrongly along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be robbed, or even become ill and need expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday makers, travel insurance is just a precaution which will help it have an enjoyable and worry-free holiday. But for other, travel insurance is a way of earning money by making false claims against insurance companies. For example, some people pretend that they have had expensive equipment stole and then claim large sums in compensation. Such claims cost insurance companies a total of £ 50 million per year, but the cheats’ luck is about to run out. Thanks to a new computer system, companies will be able to tell at a glance if someone has made a claim within the last three years. Honest travelers will no longer have to pay through the nose to other people’s dishonesty.
SECTION IV: READING (30 pts)
I. Read the text and choose the best answer ( A, B, C or D) to fill in each gap.(10 pts)
What we know about music and the brain
Work on the human brain has indicated how different parts are centres of activity for different skills, feelings, perceptions and so on. It has also been shown that the left and right halves, or hemispheres, of the brain are (51) .. for different functions. While language is processed in the left, or analytical hemisphere, for most people music is processed in the right, or emotional hemisphere. However, professional musicians have the (52) .. to process music in the left hemisphere more often than those without musical training do. This (53) .. they are having a different experience – which is likely to be the case because they are analysing music rather than just listening to it. (54) .. of music like tone, pitch and melody are all probably processed in different parts of the brain. Some features of musical experience are processed not just in the auditory parts of the brain, but in the visual ones. We don’t yet fully understand the (55) .. of this.
The tempo of music seems to be (65) .. related to its emotional impact, with fast music often felt as happier and slower music as sadder. It is the same with the major biological rhythm of the body: our heart (57) .. quickens when we’re happy, but slows when we’re sad. Military music may have evolved from attempts to get us ready for (58) .. by using fast drumming to stimulate our hearts to beat faster. Music is perhaps one of the most complex experiences the brain (59) .. with and it has become an absolutely vital part of our rituals and ceremonies. It has power beyond language to (60) .. mood and co-ordinate our emotional states.
51. A amenable 	B dependable 	C responsible 	D reliable
52. A tendency 	B inclination 	C possibility 	D intention
53 .A proposes 	B advances 	C introduces 	D suggests
54 .A Views 	B Aspects 	C Factors 	D Pieces
55. A expectations 	B implications 	C assumptions 	D propositions
56. A surely 	B plainly 	C evidently 	D directly
57. A pulse 	B speed 	C pace 	D rate
58. A battle 	B fight 	C quarrel 	D struggle
59. A manages 	B copes 	C bears 	D holds
60. A notify 	B report 	C associate 	D communicate
II. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word. (10 pts)
	ACOUSTIC ARCHAEOLOGY
Acoustic archaeology studies the role played by sound in the ancient world. It examines the connection (61) ________ acoustics and religious or spiritual sites. The main question is whether the acoustics of a place are relevant (62) _______ the way it was used.
Archaeologists have noticed that (63) ________ number of ancient sites have echoes at very low frequencies. When sounds are as low as this, you feel them in your body, (64) ________ than just hearing them, and this creates a feeling of happiness and contentment. Sites with such echoes were probably chosen on (65) ________, to make visitors feel they were in a place of worship.
If you stand in front of the Maya Temple in Mexico and (66) ________ your hands, you can hear an echo that sounds (67) ________ the chirp of the Maya sacred bird. This chirping echo (68) ________ produced because the steps of the long temple staircase are at different (69) ________ from the listener. Some archaeologists claim that the Maya purposely constructed this temple (70) ________ achieve the sound. Priests used this echo effect to make people believe that the gods were speaking to them. Similar acoustic phenomena have been observed in sites all over the world.
III. Read the following passage carefully and then choose the words (A, B, C or D) that best answer each of the questions about it. (5points)
As Philadelphia grew from a small town into a city in the first half of the eighteenth century, it became an increasingly important marketing center for a vast and growing agricultural hinterland. Market days saw the crowded city even more crowded, as farmers from within a radius of 24 or more kilometers brought their sheep, cows, pigs, vegetables, cider, and other products for direct sale to the townspeople. 
The High Street Market was continuously enlarged throughout the period until 1736, when it reached from Front Street to Third. By 1745 New Market was opened on Second Street between Pine and Cedar. The next year the Callowhill Market began operation.
Along with market days, the institution of twice-yearly fairs persisted in Philadelphia even after similar trading days had been discontinued in other colonial cities. The fairs provided a means of bringing handmade goods from outlying places to would-be buyers in the city. Linens and stockings from Germantown, for example, were popular items.
Auctions were another popular form of occasional trade. Because of the competition, retail merchants opposed these as well as the fairs. Although governmental attempts to eradicate fairs and auctions were less than successful, the ordinary course of economic development was on the merchants' side, as increasing business specialization became the order of the day. Export merchants became differentiated from their importing counterparts, and specialty shops began to appear in addition to general stores selling a variety of goods.
71. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Philadelphia's agriculture importance.
B. Philadelphia's development as a marketing center.
C. The sale of imported goods in Philadelphia.
D. The administration of the city of Philadelphia.
72. The word "hinterland” in line 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. tradition	B. association	C. production	D. region
73. According to the passage, fairs in Philadelphia were held _______.
A. on the same day as market says	B. as often as possible
C. a couple of times a year	D. whenever the government allowed it
74. The word "eradicate" in line 14 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. eliminate	B. exploit	C. organize	D. operate
75. What does the author mean by stating in line 15 that "economic development was on the merchants' side"?
A. Merchants had a strong impact on economic expansion.
B. Economic forces allowed merchants to prosper.
C. Merchants had to work together to achieve economic independence.
D. Specialty shops near large markets were more likely to be economically successful.
IV: Read the following text and then choose from the list A–H given below the best phrase to fill each of the spaces. Each correct phrase may only be used once. Some of the suggested answers do not fit at all. (5ts)
A but extensive railway systems exist underground so why not huge cities?
B but architects make great efforts to mimic conditions above ground.
C but human psychology makes this possible.
D but who would not accept these working conditions?
E but even the lowest floors get some sunlight.
F but technical difficulties cannot be overcome.
G but a special shower system can create the impression of rain.
H but is there an alternative to building up?
An odd place to live
Everyone needs somewhere to live and work, and humans will construct buildings almost anywhere, using even ice or mud as materials if nothing else is available. In the industrialised world, the problem is not finding materials for building but limited space and the high price of land. 
The solution in most big cities is to build skyscrapers high into the air (76) .. . Some architects have proposed turning skyscrapers on their heads and building down into the ground. This may seem an unusual concept (77) .. . Such places could accommodate 100,000 people without using up valuable surface land. The underground city is technically feasible but there is a massive psychological barrier to be overcome. Will people be able to deal with living away from the sun and sky? The underground ‘city’ could be restricted to places of entertainment and office buildings but even being buried just for your working hours may not seem attractive. 
Some such buildings do exist. In Minneapolis, USA, there is a building which is 95 per cent underground (78) .. . This is achieved by an elaborate system of mirrors. Living underground means you do not know what the weather is like (79) .. . For example, the Asahi television centre in Tokyo is 20 metres below the surface (80) .. . It seems that subterranean workers miss real weather even when it is bad!
SECTION V: WRITING (20 pts)
I. Use given words to rewrite the second sentence that the meaning not change (5 pts)
81. My bank manager and I get on together very well. 
→I -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
82. Absolute secrecy was crucial to the success of the mission.
→Without ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------.
83. Immediately after his arrival home a water-heater exploded.
→Hardly -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
84. Tim insisted on being told the complete story.
→Nothing ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
85. The result of the match was never in doubt.
→At no time -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
II. Use the word given to write the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the words given. (5pts)
86. The fox was unsuccessful in reaching the grapes.(VAIN)
→ The fox --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
87. I enjoy being the boss of a small company. (FISH)
→I enjoy ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
88. The bank robbers escaped in a stolen car. (GETAWAY)
→ The bank ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
89. That old typewriter is not worth repairing. (POINTLESS)
→Repairing -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
90. They share a lot of hobbies and interests. (COMMON)
→They -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
III. That there is a old proverb it is: “An apple a day keeps the doctor away”. Within 120 to 150 words, write a paragraph to express your ideas about this proverb (10 pts) 
Họ và tên thí sinh:......................................	Số báo danh:............................
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm
A. ANSWER KEYS
SECTION I: LISTENING (15 pts)
I. (10 pts)
1. travel agency	2. High Adventure	3. mending/repairing	4. 6 days	5. local
6. bored	7. storms	8. Sailing club	9. ships	10. diaries
II. (5 pts)
11. D	12. C	13. F	14. B	15. A
SECTION II: PHONETICS (5 pts)
I. Pronunciation (3 points)
16. B 	17. A	18. C
II. Stress (2 points)
19. C 	20. D
SECTION III: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (30 pts)
I. (10 pts)
21. D
22. A
23. C
24. D
25. C
26. B
27. C
28. B
29. D
30. B
II. (7 pts)
31. is always entering/ is .. entering 35. shouldn’t have sacked	
32. will have been built 36. have on occasion been/ have . been
33. (should) be announced 37. has been watering
34. was going to see
III. (8 pts)
38. construction
39. numerous/innumerable
40. replacing/replaced
41. disapproval
42. adviser/advisor
43. combinations
44. distinctive
45. astonishingly
IV. (5 pts)
46. line 2: wrongly à wrong	47. line 4: it à them
48. line 5: other à others	49. line 7: stole à stolen	
50. line 11: to other people’s dishonesty à for other people’s dishonesty
SECTION IV: READING (30 pts)
I. (10 pts)
51. C
52. A
53. D
54. B
55. B
56. D
57. D
58. A
59. B
60. D
II. (10 pts)
61. between
62. to
63. a
64. rather
65. purpose
66. clap
67. like
68. is
69. distances
70. to
III. (5 pts)
71. B
72. D
73. C
74. A
75. B
IV. (5 pts)
76. H
77. A
78. E
79. B
80. G
SECTION V: WRITING (20 pts)
I. (5 pts)
81. I am on very good terms with my bank manager.
82. Without absolute secrecy, the mission wouldn’t have succeeded.
83. Hardly had he arrived home when a water-heater exploded.
84.Nothing but the complete story would satisfy Tim.
85. At no time was the result of the match in doubt.
II. (5 pts)
86. The fox tried in vain to reach the grapes.
87. I enjoy being a big fish in a small pond
88. The bank robbers made a getaway in a stolen car.
89. Repairing that old typewriter is pointless.
90. They have a lot of hobbies and interest in common.
III. Paragraph writing (10 pts)
- If the contents are not relevant, the paragraph IS NOT COUNTED.
- If the contents are relevant, ASSESS in accordance with this scale 
Criteria
Details
Appearance
( 1 point)
- Is a solid unit with 3 parts (topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence).
- Paragraph should be indented only in the first line.
- If Ss’ writing looks like an essay, subtract 0.5 point.
- Number of words is about 120-150. Less than 120 words or more than 150 words, subtract 0.3 point. 
Structure
(2 points)
- Topic sentence: Ss must mention that they will talk about benefits. 
- There should be 2 or 3 supporting sentences and examples or explanations for each supporting idea. 
- Concluding sentence(s): Ss can summarize the main ideas in supporting sentences, or paraphrase the topic sentence.
Coherence
(1 point)
- Topic sentence and supporting sentences must be relevant
- Examples/explanations must be relevant to the supporting idea that they support. 
Unity
(1 point)
- If Ss’ writing has a good use of linking words -> 0.5 point
- If Ss’ writing has a flexible use of unfamiliar transitional signals ->1 point.
Grammar and vocabulary
(3 points)
- If Ss’ writing is free of grammatical mistakes and spelling mistakes ->2 points. 
- If Ss’ writing has a wide range of sentence patterns, wide range of vocabulary and less common vocabulary ->3 points.
- Subtract 0.25 point for one mistake.
Persuasiveness
(2 points)
The writing is convincing. 
B. MARKS AND RESULTS
- Grand total: 100 points
- Scale: 20
	correct answers in total
- Gain marks = 
	 5