Bài tập môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 11 về đọc hiểu - Reading comprehension:

BÀI TẬP VỀ ĐỌC HIỂU - READING COMPREHENSION:
Exercise 1. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
Several hundred million years ago, plants similar to modern ferns covered vast stretches of the land. Some were as large as trees, with giant fronds bunched at the top of trunks as straight as pillars. Others were the size of bushes and formed thickets of undergrowth. Still others lived in the shade of giant club mosses and horsetails along the edges of swampy lagoons where giant amphibians swam.
	A great number of these plants were true ferns, reproducing themselves without fruits or seeds. Others had only the appearance of ferns. Their leaves had organs of sexual reproduction and produced seeds. Although their “flowers” did not have corollas, these false ferns (today completely extinct) ushered in the era of flowering plants. Traces of these floras of the earliest times have been preserved in the form of fossils. Such traces are most commonly found in shale and sandstone rocks wedged between coal beds.
	Today only tropical forests bear living proof of the ancient greatness of ferns. The species that grow there are no longer those of the Carboniferous period, but their variety and vast numbers, and the great size of some, remind us of the time when ferns ruled the plant kingdom.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Plant reproduction	B. How to locate fossils
C. An ancient form of plant life	D. Tropical plant life
2. The word “Others” refers to_________.
A. plants	B. pillars	C. trees	D. fronds
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the plants described in the passage?
A. They once spread over large areas of land.
B. They varied greatly in size.
C. They coexisted with amphibians, mosses, and horsetails.
D. They clung to tree trunks and bushes for support.
4. The word “true” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. accurate	B. genuine	C. straight	D. dependable
5. The author states that fossils of early plant life are usually found in rocks located between deposits of_______.
A. coal	B. shale	C. sandstone	D. corollas
Exercise 2. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
This symptoms of hay fever include watery and itchy eyes and a runny, congested nose. People suffering from hay fever may experience occasional wheezing and repeated bouts of sneezing and may even lose their sense of smell. Some victims of hay fever may also have stopped-up ears. About 30 percent of those who suffer from hay fever may develop the symptoms associated with periodic asthma or a sinus infection. The allergen-antibody theory does not fully explain allergic reactions because the membranes and glands in eyes and ears are controlled by the independent nervous system, which keeps these organs in balance. But the independent nervous system itself is part of the emotional- response center and may cause the feelings of anger, fear, resentment, and lack of self-confidence in reaction to allergy-causing substances.
	The most common cause of hay fever is the pollen of ragweed, which blossoms during the summer and autumn. When airborne pollen particles, as well mold, come into contact with the victim’s membranes, they can cause allergic reactions that release histamine and result in virtual blockage of air passages. To prevent hay fever or to decrease the severity of its symptoms, contact with the ragweed pollen should be reduced. Although some communities have attempted to eliminate the plants that cause the reactions, elimination programs have not been successful because airborne pollen can travel considerable distances. Antihistamine can help with short but severe attacks. Over extended periods of time, however, patients are prescribed a series of injections of the substance to which they are sensitive in order to increase immunity and thus be relieved of the seasonal allergy.
	(Resource: Toefl test strategies by Eli Hinkel, Ph.D)
1. It can be inferred from the passage that the phrase “hay fever” refers to________.
A. fodder for cattle	B. a seasonal discomfort
C. viral bacteria 	D. a lung disease
2. According to the passage, the symptoms of the allergy are predominantly________.
A. abdominal	B. intestinal	C. respiratory	D. chronic
3. What can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Hay fever may cause severe allergic reactions and even death.
B. The cause of allergic reactions has not been determined.
C. The nervous system balances allergic reactions.
D. People should not have an emotional response to allergic reactions.
4. According to the passage, patients suffering from hay fever may also experience________. 
A. hunger pains	B. mood swings 	C. nervous blockages D. sensory perceptions
5. The word “resentment” is closest in meaning to________. 
A. reprieve	B. reprisal	C. irritation	D. grief
6. According to the passage, the irritants are transported by________. 
A. wind	B. food	C. travelers	D. air passages
7. The word “blockage” in the passage is closest in meaning to________. 
A. obstruction 	B. bleeding 	C. enlargement 	D. dryness
8. According to the passage, to avoid incidents of hay fever, patients need to________.
A. avoid interactions with other patients 	B. avoid exposure to pollen
C. increase their self-confidence	D. take doses of prescribed medicine.
9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a cause of allergies?
A. pollen	B. mold	C. flowers	D. injections
10. A paragraph following this passage would most probably discuss________. 
A. how the nervous system alerts patients. 
B. how the immune system reacts to allergens.
C. what other diseases can be relieved by vaccines.
D. What flowers are harmless to hay fever patients.
Exercise 3. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
A pilot cannot fly by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in dense fog, a pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at determining speeds of approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person determine the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the distance between the radar set and other objects. The word “radar”, in fact, gets its name from the term “radio detection and ranging”. “Ranging” is the term for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and storms. 
1. What is the main topic of this passage? 
	A. The nature of radar. 	B. History of radar. 	
	C. Alternatives to radar. 	D. Types of ranging. 
2. According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects? 
	A. Shape 	B. Size 	C. Speed 	D. Weight 
3. The word “exemplified” in the passage can be replaced by_________. 
	A. “specified” 	B. “resembled” 	C. “illustrated” 	D. “justified” 
4. The word “shouts” in the passage most closely means_________. 
	A. “exclaims” 	B. “yells” 	C. “shoots” 	D. “whispers” 
5. Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage? 
	A. argumentative 	B. explanatory 	C. humorous 	D. imaginative 
6. According to the passage, the distance between a radar set and an object can be determined by_________. 
A. the time it takes for a burst of radio waves to produce echoes when the waves bounce off the object 
B. the term “ranging” used for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set 
C. the time it takes for the radio waves to produce echoes and bounce off the object 
D. the time it takes for the echoes produced by the radio waves to return to the radar set 
7. Which type of waves does radar use? 
	A. tidal 	B. sound 	C. heat 	D. radio 
8. The word “tracking” in the passage most closely means_________. 
	A. sending 	B. searching for 	C. ranging 	D. repairing 
9. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph? 
	A. A history of flying. 	B. Other uses of radar. 
	C. The technology used by pilots. 	D. Uses of some technology. 
10. What might be inferred about radar? 
	A. It takes the place of a radio. 	B. It has improved navigational safety. 
	C. It was developed from a study of sound waves. 	
D. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.
Exercise 4. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
Today’s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile engines have already been developed than run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option presently available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other dependable source of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighborhood cars, electric delivery vans, bikes and trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging facilities will need to be as common as today’s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centers might be reserved for electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighborhood vehicles all meeting at transit centers that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of vehicles that can be carried by freeway today.
1. The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT_________.
	A. vans	B. trains	C. planes	D. trolleys
2. The author’s purpose in the passage is to_________.
	A. criticize conventional vehicles	
	B. support the invention of electric cars
	C. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles	
	D. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future
3. The passage would most likely be followed by details about_________.
	A. automated freeways	B. pollution restrictions in the future
	C. the neighborhood of the future	D. electric shuttle buses
4. The word “compact” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to_________.
	A. long-range	B. inexpensive	C. concentrated	D. squared
5. In the second paragraph, the author implies that_________.
	A. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
	B. everyday life will stay much the same in the future.
	C. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation
	D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future
6. According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be_________.
	A. more convenient than they are today	B. equipped with charging devices 
	C. much larger than they are today	D. as common as today’s gas stations
7. The word “charging” in this passage refers to_________.
	A. electricity	B. credit cards	C. aggression	D. lightning
8. The word “foresee” in this passage could best be replaced with_________.
	A. count on	B. invent	C. imagine	D. rely on
9. The word “commuters” in paragraph 4 refers to_________.
	A. daily travelers	B. visitors	C. cab drivers	D. shoppers
10. The word “hybrid” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. combination	B. hazardous	 C. futuristic	D. automated
Exercise 5. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
The Stone Age was a period of history which began in approximately two million B.C and lasted until 3000 B.C. Its name was derived from the stone tools and weapons that modern scientists found. This period was divided into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic, and Neolithic Ages. 
During the first period (2 million to 8000 B.C), the first hatchet and use of fire for heating and cooking were developed. As a result of the Ice Age, which evolved about one million years into the Paleolithic Age, people were forced to seek shelter in caves, wear clothing, and developed new tools.
During the Mesolithic Age (8000 to 6000 B.C), people made crude pottery and the first fish hooks, took dogs hunting, and developed the bow and arrow, which was used until the fourteenth century A.D. 
The Neolithic Age (6000 to 3000 B.C) saw humankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs, and cattle, being less nomadic than in previous eras, establishing permanent settlements, and creating governments.
1. Into how many periods was the Stone Age divided?
A. two	B. three	C. four	D. five
2. The word “derived” is closest meaning to___________.
A. originated	B. destroyed	C. inferred	D. discussed
3. Which of the following was developed earliest?
A. fish hook	B. bow and arrow	C. hatchet	D. pottery
4. Which of the following developments is NOT related to the conditions of the Ice Age?
A. farming	B. clothing	C. living indoors	D. using fire
5. The word “crude” is closest meaning to___________.
A. extravagant	B. complex	C. vulgar	D. primitive
6. The author states that the Stone Age was so named because____________.
A. it was very durable like stone	B. there was little vegetation	
C. the stools and weapons was made of stone	D. the people lived in stone caves
7. The word “nomadic” is closest meaning to___________.
A. sedentary	B. wandering	C. primitive	D. inquisitive
8. The word “eras” is closest meaning to___________.
A. families	B. periods	C. herds	D. tools
9. Which of the following best describes the Mesolithic Age?
A. people were inventive	B. people were warriors
 C. People stayed indoors all the time	D. people were crude
10. With what subject is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The Neolithic Age	 B. The Stone Age	C. The Ice Age	D. The Paleolithic Age
Exercise 6. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810 a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850's an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860's, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year. 
 Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890's, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870's, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920's and 1930's.
 Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage	.	
B. Commercial production of ice.
C. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet.
D. Population movements in the nineteenth century.
2. The phrase in season refers to______.
A. a kind of weather	B. a particular time of year
C. an official schedule	D. a method of flavoring food
3. The word prevent is closest in meaning to_______.
A. estimate	B. avoid	C. correct	D. confine
4. During the 1860's, canned food products were ______.
A. unavailable in rural areas	B. shipped in refrigerator cars
C. available in limited quantities	D. a staple part of the American diet
5. The word them refers to_______.
A. refrigerator cars	B. perishables	C. growers	D. distances
6. The word fixture is closest in meaning to______.
A. luxury item	B. substance	
C. commonplace object	D. mechanical device
7. The author implies that in the 1920's and 1930's home deliveries of ice_______.
A. decreased in number	B. were on an irregular schedule
C. increased in cost	D. occurred only in the summer
8. The word Nevertheless is closest in meaning to_______.
A. Therefore	B. Because	C. Occasionally	D. However
9. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying.	B. Canning.	C. Cold storage.	D. Chemical additives.
10. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
B. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners.
C. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
D. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
Exercise 7. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
 May 7th 1840 was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century: Peter Ilyich Tchaikovsky, the son of a mining inspector. Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876 and 1890, during which time he enjoyed patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who gave him a yearly living stipend. Madame von Meck later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance, when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties. It was during the time of Madame von Meck’s patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most famous, including the music for the ballets of “Swan Lake” and “The Sleeping Beauty”. Tchaikovsky’s music, well-known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages, was one of the first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention had been given to the music behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died ostensibly of cholera on November 6th 1893, though there are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
1. The best title for this passage could be_________.
A. “The Life and Music of Tchaikovsky” 	
B. “Development of Tchaikovsky’s Music for Ballets”
C. “Tchaikovsky’s Relationship with Madame von Meck”	
D. “The Cause of Tchaikovsky’s Death”
2. According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT_________.
A. she had economic troubles	B. she was generous 
C. she was never introduced to Tchaikovsky	D. she enjoyed Tchaikovsky’s music
3. According to the passage, Tchaikovsky’s music is most well-known for_________.
A. it’s repetitive and monotonous tones	B. the ballet-like quality of music
C. the richness and melodic drama of the music	D. its lively, capricious melodies
4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky’s influence on ballet music. B. Tchaikovsky’s unhappiness leading to suicide.
C. The patronage of Madame von Meck.	 D. Tchaikovsky’s productivity in composing. 
5. It can be inferred from the passage that_________.
A. it was not the music behind the dance that made Tchaikovsky famous
B. there is suspicion on the cause of Tchaikovsky’s death
C. Madame von Meck was one of the most famous Russian composers
D. Madame von Meck was one of Tchaikovsky’s girlfriends
Exercise 8. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
	Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep. 
	The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.
1. What is the main point of the first paragraph?
	A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
	B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
	C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
	D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
2. The words "In reality" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
	A. surprisingly 	B. actually	C. characteristically 	D. similarly
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is_________.
	A. size	B. distance	 C. temperature 	D. density
4. The word "configuration" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
	A. unit	B. center 	C. surface	 D. arrangement
5. Neap tides occur when_________.
	A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction
	B. the Moon is full
	C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
	D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
Exercise 9. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are means of communication – having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected. 
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the issues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High – tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone of you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
1. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because___________.
	A. they are indispensable in everyday communication	B. they make them look more stylish
	C. they keep the users alert all the time	 D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones
2. The changes possible caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with___________.
	A. the mobility of the mind and the body 	B. the smallest units of brain
	C. the arteries of the brain	D. the resident memory
3. The word "means" in the passage most closely means___________.
	A. meanings	B. expression	C. method	D. transmission
4. The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means___________.
	A. obviously	B. possibly	C. certainly	D. privately
5. "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means___________.
	A. information on the lethal effects of cell phones
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones
	C. the negative public use of cell phones
D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones
6. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may___________.
	A. damage their users' emotions	B. cause some mental malfunction
	C. change their users' temperament	D. change their users' social behavior
7. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often___________.
	A. suffered serious loss of mental ability	B. could no longer think lucidly
	C. abandoned his family	D. had a problem with memory
8. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is___________.
	A. their radiant light	B. their power of attraction
C. their raiding power	D. their invisible rays
9. According to the writer, people should _______.
	A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases	B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies
	C. keep off mobile phones regularly	D. never used mobile phones in all cases
10. The most suitable title for the passage could be___________.
	A. "The reasons why mobile phones are regular"	 
B. "Technological Innovation and their price"
	C. "The way mobile phones work"	 
D. "Mobile phones – a must of our time"
Exercise 10. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
	Have you ever thought about the names of the months? Why are “January” and “February” not called “Primo” or “Secondo”? Is it because the original names were created in ancient times? Or is it because the originators preferred odd words?
	Take February, for example. Say it aloud a few minutes and you start to wonder. Most people don’t know who developed these names. However, a little research reveals that the names of the months came mostly from a combination of the names of Roman gods and goddesses, important festivals, and the original numbers of the months.
	Julius Caesar and Pope Gregory XIII change the calendar to make it more exact. Caesar developed a new calendar of 364 and a quarter days, the time it takes the earth to orbit the sun from one spring season to the next. The Pope’s astronomers refined the calendar regarding leap years; they determined that there should be no leap year in years ending in 00- unless they were divisible by 400; the years 1700, 1800, 1900 and 2100 would not be considered leap years, while the years 1600 and 2000 would be. This new Gregorian calendar was so accurate that t