Tổng hợp bộ đề thi môn Tiếng Anh các tỉnh - Kỳ thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT Chuyên - Nguyễn Thị Thuận

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Tổng hợp bộ đề thi môn Tiếng Anh các tỉnh - Kỳ thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT Chuyên - Nguyễn Thị Thuận
ĐỀ SỐ 1
SỞ GD& ĐT NGHỆ AN
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYấN PHAN BỘI CHÂU
NĂM HỌC 2011- 2012
Mụn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 120 phỳt (khụng kể thời gian giao đề)
Điểm bài thi
Họ tờn, chữ kớ giỏm khảo
Số phỏch
Điểm bằng số..
Giỏm khảo 1: ...
Điểm bằng chữ..
Giỏm khảo 2: ...
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. 	A. precious	B. preparation	C. pretty	D. repetition 
2. 	A. architect 	B. parachute 	C. choir 	D. psychology
3. 	A. treason 	B. reason 	C. season 	D. jealous
4. 	A. aggressive 	B. suggest 	C. energy 	D. garbage 
5. 	A. measure	B. vision	C. pleasure	D. pension
Your answers:
1. 
2.
3.
4.
5.
II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others.
1. 	A. official	B. literacy	C. inventory	D. stationery
2. 	A. diversity	B. severe 	C. ecosystem 	D. courageous
3. 	A. prediction	B. compulsory	C. intelligent	D. judgement
4. 	A. valuable	B. entertain	C. honesty	D. mountain.
5. 	A. realize	B. product	C. mechanic 	D. separate
Your answers:
1. 
2.
3.
4.
5.
SECTION II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the blanks.
1. It is recommended that he _______ this course
	A. took 	B. takes 	C. take 	D. taking
2. Various societies define _______ in many rather complex ways.	
	A. that is successful 	B. what success is 	C. that success is 	D. what is success
3. I could not turn in my paper on time because my word processor _______. 
	A. fell down 	B. turned down	C. tore down	D. broke down
4. “You must always _______ us the truth” the judge said to the man. 
	A. tell 	B. confess	C. speak	D. say 
5. Her father is a _______ drinker. He is always drinking.
	A. strong	B. heavy 	C. addictive	D. capable 
6. Don’t set off fireworks too closely to your house, _______?
	A. do you	B. don’t you	C. will you	D. won’t you
7. Trains stop here in order to _______ passengers only. 
	A. pick up 	B. get off 	C. pull up 	D. pull in
8. In recent years, more and more people _______ for things with credit cards.
	A. pay	B. are paid	C. are paying	D. have been paying
9. He was the first person _______ the fire.
	A. discover	B. to discover	C. discovering	D. discovered
10. “Who was the man with you yesterday?” - “He was _______.”
	A. the next door man	B. the man next to the door	
	C. the man next by the door 	D. the man next door 	
11. John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” -Anna: “_______!”
	A. Better luck next time	B. So poor	C. Congratulations	D. That was nice of them
12. You can _______ your sister to our party tonight.
	A. bring 	B. carry 	C. take 	D. get
13. You need more exercise, so you should _______ golf.
	A. carry out 	B. take in 	C. turn up 	D. take up
14. I like that photo very much. Could you make an _______ for me?
	A. increase 	B. enlargement	C. expansion	D. extension
15. His roses won the first ________in the local flower competition.
	A. prize	B. award 	C. cup	D. reward 
Your answers:
1. 
2.
3.
4.
5.
6. 
7.
8.
9.
10.
11. 
12.
13.
14.
15.
II. There are TEN mistakes in the passage. Each numbered line in the right column has one. Find and correct them.
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is as complicated as it is serious. It is complicated because of much pollution is caused by things that benefit people. For example, exhaust of automobiles causes a large percent of all air pollution. However, the automobile provides transportation for million of people. Factories discharge much of material that pollutes air and water, but factories give employment to the large number of people.
Thus, to end or great reduce pollution immediately, people would have to stop using many things that benefit them. Most the people do not want to do that, of course. Nevertheless, pollution can be gradual reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can work to find ways to less the way of pollution that such things like automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws that request businesses and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.
Your answer:
(1) ...
(2) ...
(3) ...
(4) 
(5) 
(6) 
(7) 
(8) 
(9) 
(10) ..
III. Fill in each blank with the correct form of the given word.
1. He feels sad about his _______ result in the examination. 
 SATISFY 
2. The_______ of this factory are widely consumed in this country. 
 PRODUCE
3. You must keep on working with him no matter how much you ______. 
 AGREE
4. Film festivals are_______ divided into categories like drama, documentary or animation.
 TYPICAL
5. He enjoyed _______ with friends and it cost nothing. 
 SOCIAL
6. I have just bought a replacement for one of my favorites which _______ disappeared.
 MYSTERY 
7. Gift exchange is _______ expression of social relations. 
 SIGNIFY 
8. I try not to remember this ______ experience that only leaves me with unhappy thoughts. 
 FRIGHTEN 
9. The boy _______ asked for permission to go out with his friends. 
 REPEAT
10. British Rail apologized for the _______ of the 4.20 to Bath. 
 CANCEL 
Your answers:
1. 
2. 
3. 
4 
5. 
6. 
7. 
8. 
9. 
10. 
SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in each numbered blank in the following passage.
NEW HUNT FOR LIFE IN SPACE
	British space scientists are planning to join the American in the race to find evidence of life on (1)_______ planets. Alan Penny and his team at the Rutherford Appleton Laboratory have designed a telescope that is 40 times more powerful than Hubble. Known as ‘Darwin’, his telescope could tell if planets 50 (2) _______ years away have any kind of life on them. Two days (3) _______, NASA scientists had shown a proof that one of Jupiter’s moons could support life, Penny announced that his telescope may be included in a European Space Agency mission. The Darwin project, with a (4)_______ of 500 million, is on a short list of two proposals. If approved it will probably be (5)_______ around 2015, its destination somewhere between Mars and Jupiter. The blueprint is actually for five telescopes positioned 50 meters apart in space, slowly circling a (6)_______ processing station. The combined data from these telescopes would build up a full picture of a planet, picking out faint images that have never been seen before. Darwin would not be able to take detailed photographs of the planets it (7) _______, but Penny believes a second- generation telescope could be sent up to do this. He claims it is worthwhile mapping the universe around our (8) _______ galaxy, even though these planets lie (9)_______ our reach for the moment. The European Space Agency will make its decision (10) ______ Darwin within three years.
1. 	A. another 	B. other 	C. others 	D. the other 
2. 	A. light 	B. lighten 	C. lightening 	D. lighting 
3. 	A. following	B. after	C. next	D. later
4. 	A. price	B. schedule	C. charge	D. budget
5. 	A. driven	B. fetched	C. launched	D. taken
6. 	A. central 	B. centre	C. middle	D. heart
7. 	A. invents	B. searches	C. discovers	D. looks
8. 	A. alone	B. same	C. one	D. own
9. 	A. out	B. toward	C. beyond	D. over
10. 	A. of	B. on 	C. about 	D. with
Your answers:
1. 
2. 
3. 
4 
5. 
6. 
7. 
8. 
9. 
10. 
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to the questions.
	A pilot cannot fly by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in dense fog, a pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at determining speeds of approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person determine the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of the radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the distance between the radar set and other objects. The word “radar”, in fact, gets its name from the term “radio detection and ranging”. “Ranging” is the term for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and storms. 
1. What is the main topic of this passage? 
A. The nature of radar. 	B. History of radar. 	
C. Alternatives to radar. 	D. Types of ranging. 
2. According to the passage, what can radar detect besides locations of objects? 
	A. Shape 	B. Speed 	C. Size 	D. Weight 
3. Which type of waves does radar use? 
A. tidal 	B. heat	C. sound 	D. radio 
4. The word tracking in the passage most closely means _______. 
	A. sending 	B. repairing 	C. ranging 	D. searching for 
5. What might be inferred from the passage about radar? 
	A. It has improved navigational safety. 	B. It was developed from a study of sound waves. C. It takes the place of a radio. 	D. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane. 
Your answer:
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
5. 
III. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word in the following passage.
	The idea that a blind person could drive a car sounds crazy. And the concept of someone who can’t see driving a car at almost 150 miles per hour sounds even (1) _______. Miranda Naylor, a blind accountant from Southport, has done exactly that in an attempt to (2) _______ money for charity. Mrs. Naylor drove (3) _______ sports car for two miles in a straight line along the runway of a disused airfield. She was in radio contact with her husband Pete Naylor, (4) _______ was able to give her directions and advice in this way. Her amazing achievement is expected to raise about Ê50,000, which will be donated (5) _______ a company that trains dogs for the blind. Mrs. Naylor has been blind (6) _______ she was six years old and she still has some visual memories of the world (7) _______ her. She admits that not having her sight makes her life awkward at times. She believes that if you are disabled in any way, you shouldn’t waste time (8) _______ sorry for yourself. “It makes a lot of sense to keep busy” she says. “Achieving (9)_______ can be a great source of self confidence”. Miranda is now looking for a new challenge and (10) _______ like to ride a motorbike. 
Your answers:
1. 
2. 
3. 
4 
5. 
6. 
7. 
8. 
9. 
10. 
SECTION IV: WRITING
I. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one.
1. I find his handwriting very hard to read.
 ð I have ....
2. He got down to writing a letter as soon as he returned from his work.
 ð No sooner ...
 3. Success depends on your hard work.
 ð The harder ..
4. “If I were you, I wouldn’t accept his marriage proposal”, said Nam to Lan.
 ð Nam .
5. No matter how hard I tried, I could not open the window.
 ð Try .....
II. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, using the given word. Do not change the given word.
1. The fridge is completely empty. 
 ð .....
LEFT
2. It is pointless to have that old typewriter repaired. 
 ð .....
WORTH 
3. Frank never pays any attention to my advice.	 
 ð ....
NOTICE
4. John only understood very little of what the teacher said. 
 ð .....
HARDLY
5. Her ability to run a company really impresses me.
 ð ....
IMPRESSED
III. Write a composition on the following topic (about 150-200 words)
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
 It is better for children to grow up in the countryside than in a big city.
.
ĐÁP ÁN BÀI THI TIẾNG ANH VÀO 10 TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYấN PHAN BỘI CHÂU 
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently (5x1=5 pts)
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. D
II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from  (5x1=5 pts)
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. C
SECTION II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps. (15x1=15 pts)
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. D
11. A
12. C
13. D
14. B
15. A
II. There are TEN mistakes in the passage. Find them out and correct them. (10x1=10 pts)
1. because
2. from
3. percentage
4. millions
5. a
6. greatly
7. Most of
8. gradually
9. lessen
10. as
III. Fill in each gap with the correct form of the given words. (10x1=10 pts)
1. unsatisfactory
2. products
3. disagree
4. typically
5. socializing
6. mysteriously
7. significant
 8. frightening 
 9. repeatedly
10. cancellation 
SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Choose the best answer to fill each blank in the following passage. (10x1=10 pts)
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. B 
II. Read the passage and choose the answers to the questions below. (5x2=10 pts)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
III. Fill each blank in the following passage with a suitable word. (10x1=10 pts)
1. crazier
2. raise
3. a
4. who
5. to
6. since
7. around
8. feeling 
9. something
10. would
SECTION IV: WRITING
I. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first. (5x1=5 pts)
1. I have difficulty (in) reading his handwriting.
2. No sooner had he returned from his work than he got down to writing a letter.
3. The harder you work, the more successful you are.
4. Nam advised Lan not to accept his marriage proposal.
5. Try as hard as I might, I could not open the window.
II. Finish the second sentence so that it has . 	 (5x1=5 pts)
1. There is nothing left in the fridge.
2. That old typewriter is not worth repairing. / It is not worth repairing that old typewriter.
3. Frank never takes any notice of my advice.
4. John could hardly understand what the teacher said. /Hardly could John understand
5. What I am really impressed by is her ability to run a company. / I’m really impressed by her.
III. Write a composition on the following topic (about 150-200 words) (15 pts)
- Layout and length.
- Grammar, structures and vocabulary.
- Content.
TOTAL MARK: 100 pts : 5 = 20 pts
THE END
ĐỀ SỐ 2
UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
SỞ GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYấN
Năm học 2009-2010
MễN THI: Tiếng Anh (Dành cho thớ sinh thi vào chuyờn Anh)
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phỳt (khụng kể thời gian giao đề);
Ngày thi: 09/07/2009 
 A. PHONETICS (10 POINTS)
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others in each group. (5 points)
A. climate 	B. comic	C. hike	D. website
A. worked	B. laughed	C. hoped	D. naked
A. cover B. category C. ancient	D. decorate
A. erupt B. humor C. UFO	D. communicate
A. Buddhish B. bomb C. viable	D. bulb
II. Choose the word ( A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 points)
1. A. comprise B. depend C. design 	 D. novel
2. A. tropical B. collection C. tendency 	 D. charity
3. A. friendliness B. occasion C. pagoda 	 D. deposit
4. A. importing B. specific C . impolite 	 D. important
5. A. federation B. unpolluted C. disappearing D. profitable
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence. (10 points) 
1. All the sentences below use “the”, which is the correct one?
A. Can you pass the sugar please? B. The crime is a problem in many big cities.
C. The apples are good for you. D. I love the skiing.
2. Our friends have lived in Ho Chi Minh city_______ 2002.
A. for B. since C. in D. about
3. He prefers soccer______ tennis.
A. from B. than C. to D. or
4. If they worked more carefully, they _____ so many mistakes.
A. won’t make B. don’t make C. wouldn’t make D. didn’t make
5. He _______to his friend’s party when his parents asked him to go home.
A. goes B. was going C. went D. has gone
6. There’s a strange man behind us. I think ______.
A. we are followed B. we are being followed
C. we are being following D. we are following
7. Which of the following is the strongest advice?
A. You should get a hair- cut. B. If I were you, I’d get a hair-cut.
C. You ought to get a hair- cut. D. You really must get a hair- cut.
8. ________ you mind if I use your dictionary? 
A. Will B. Do C. Can D. Did
9. Mr. Vo Van Kiet, _______ was our former Prime Minister, was born in Vinh Long.
A. that B. whose C. Who D. whom
10. All that rubbish will have to be ________ at once.
A. get rid of B. got rid of C. got rid D. getting rid of
II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (10 points)
1. My friend was (make)_____ (pay)_______ back the book.
2. Hardly he (take) ________ up the book when the phone (ring) ________.
3. Can you imagine what I (come) _______ across when I (roll) ________ up the carpet yesterday?
4. If she wins the prize, it (be) __________because she (write) ______very well.
5. He resented (ask) ______ (wait) _______. He had expected the minister to see him at once.
III. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence. (10 points)
1. A lot of toys encourage children’s_________. (imagine)
2. The factory has provided cheaper__________ lately. (produce)
3. Burning coal is an _______ way of heating a house. Gas is much cheaper. (economy)
4. According to some scientists the earth is losing its outer atmosphere because of_____. ( pollute)
5. She has one of the biggest art________ in Britain. ( collect)
6. __________ has caused many so-called man-made disasters. (forest)
7. __________ often walk through the streets shouting or singing about something they sell. (cry)
8. Gas and oil________ always increases in cold weather. (consume)
9. The police are interested in the sudden________ of the valuable painting. (appear)
10. He claimed that his___________ had caused him to become a criminal. (bring up)
IV. Each of the following sentences has four words or phrases underlined. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C, D. You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that should be corrected or rewritten. (5 points)
1. Preserving natural resources mean reserving them for our future.
 A B C D
2. Despite of the increase in air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.
 A B C D
3. Regardless of your teaching method, the objective of any conversation class should be for
 A B
 students to practice speaking words.
 C D
4. The injured man was taken to the hospital.
A B C D
5. In order for one to achieve the desired results in this experiment, it is necessary that he work as fastly as possible.
A B C D
 C. READING (30 POINTS)
I. The reading is followed by several questions about it. There are four possible answers (A, B, C, or D) for each question. Choose the best answer. (15 points)
 BENJAMIN FRANKLIN
Few people can embody the spirit of early America as much as Benjamin Franklin. He lived through almost the whole of the eighteenth century, being born six years after, and dying ten years before it ended. In this time he saw the American colonies grow from tiny settlements into a nation, and he also contributed much to the development of the new state.
At the age of 17 Franklin ran away to Philadelphia. He had already received some training as a printer’s apprentice, and this helped him seven years later, with his first publication, the Pennsylvania Gazette. He also received a contract to do government printing work, which helped him to rise from his poor background to become a successful entrepreneur. Some of his experience in business was shared in his famous Poor Richard’s Almanak, which established his reputation throughout the American colonies. In another of his works, the Autobiography, which was written toward the end of his life, he shows the same quiet common sense.
He was deeply interested in science and natural history, and his experiments with electricity and lightning led directly to the invention of the lightning rod. He was also interested in improving the conditions of his fellow men. He was involved in a number of projects in his native Philadelphia, including the setting up of a library, a university, a philosophical society, and–because he was a pragmatic man–a fire prevention service. In 1753 he became Postmaster–General of the colonies. Through this experience he began to develop the idea that the colonies of North America should be a single nation. Later, he went to London to try to persuade the British government to change the conditions, especially the taxes, that later led the American colonists into rebellion.
Whatever Benjamin Franklin’s personal feelings about the rebellion of the American states, he worked hard to make it succeed. As ambassador to France, he encouraged the French to help George Washington. After the war he attended the American constitutional congress. This was his last contribution, for he died later that year. He is still fondly remembered by Americans as one of the creators of the United States.
1. What is a good description for this text?
A. An autobiography of Benjamin Franklin. B. The life of Benjamin Franklin.
C. The works of Benjamin Franklin. D. Franklin and American Independence.
2. When was Benjamin Franklin born?
 A. 1806 B. 1794 C. 1717 D. 1706
3. Which of these happened first?
A. Franklin trains as a painter. B. Franklin runs away to Philadelphia.
C. the American colonies rebel D. Franklin starts his first publication.
4. What was Poor Richard’s Almanak about?
A. Franklin’s reputation. B. How to succeed in business.
C. how to do government printing. D. The text does not say.
5. In which countries did Franklin live?
A. England and France. B. Philadelphia and England.
C. London and America. D. England, America and France.
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0). (15 points)
SAVING THE TIGER.
In 1973, when the tiger appeared to (0) be facing extinction, the World Wide Fund for nature and __(1)____ Indian Government agreed to set ___(2)__ “Operation Tiger” – a campaign __(3)___ save this threatened creature. They started by creating nine special parks ___ (4) ___ that tigers could live in safety. The first was at Ramthambhore , a region ___(5)__ was quickly turning into a desert __(6)__ too much of the grass was being eaten by the local people’s cattle. At the time there ____(7)__ just fourteen tigers left there. The government had to clear twelve small villages, which means moving nearly 1,000 people and 10,000 cattle so the land __ (8) __ be handed back to nature.
Today, Ramthambhore is a very different place, with grass tall ___(9)___ for tigers to hide in, and There are now at _(10)___ forty of them __(11)__ the park, wandering freely about. Other animals have also benefited. For example, there are many ___(12)____ deer and monkeys than before. The people __(13)__ were moved are now living in better conditions. They live in new villages away __(14)___ the tiger park, with schools, temples and fresh water supplies. There are now sixteen such tiger parks in India and the animals’ future looks ___ (15)____ little safer. 
D. WRITING (25 POINTS)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, begin with the given word(s) or phrase. (20 points)
1. You should review your lessons for the exam.
 It’s time____________________________________________________________
2.That man used to work with me when I lived in New York.
That’s ____________________________________________________________
3.What a pity they close the shops at lunch- time.
I wished ____________________________________________________________
4. We like ice- cream but we don’t have it every day.
Although ___________________________________________________________
5.When did you start working in that factory?
How long ___________________________________________________________
Oil was slowly covering the sand of the beach.
 The sand ___________________________________________________________ 
 7. “ Where’ s the station car- park?” Mrs. Smith asked.
 Mrs. Smith asked ____________________________________________________ 
8. He was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to her at the airport.
 He regretted _________________________________________________________ 9. I advise you not to buy that car.
 If _________________________________________________________________ 10. Why don’t you ask her yourself?
 I suggest that _______________________________________________________
II. Make full sentences based on given cues. (5 points) 
If you/ not go/ the party/ I / go/ either.
Unless/ I/ have/ quiet room/ I/ not/ able/ do/ work.
nurse/ kind enough/ help him/ walk.
He/ rather spend/ holidays/ a farm/ seaside.
I/ return/ visit/ Japan. It/ wonderful trip.
THE END
(Đề thi gồm 04 trang)
Họ và tờn thớ sinh: .. Số bỏo danh: ..
ĐÁP ÁN CHUYấN 10 (2009-2010)
PHONETICS(10pts)
I. Choose the word in each that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others in each group.(5pts) ( mỗi cõu viết đỳng được 1đ)
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. B
II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.(5pts)
( mỗi cõu viết đỳng được 1đ)
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. D
VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR(35pts)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. B
9. C
10. B
I. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.(10pt)s( mỗi cõu viết đỳng được 1đ)
II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (10pts)
(( mỗi cõu viết đỳng được 1đ)
made - to pay 3. came – was rolling
had he taken – rang 4. will be – writes 5. being asked – to wait
III. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence.(10pts)
( mỗi cõu viết đỳng được 1đ, nếu viết đượcc từ nhưng thiếu “s” thỡ từ đú vẫn khụng được tớnh điểm)
1. imagination
2. products
3. uneconomical
 uneconomic 
4. pollution
5. collections
6. Deforestation
7. Criers
8. consumption
9. disappearance
 re - appearance
10. upbringing
IV. Each of the following sentences has four words or phrases underlined. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C, D. You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that should be corrected or rewritten.(5pt) (mỗi cõu viết đỳng được 1đ)
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. C
 C. READING (30PTS)
I. The reading is followed by several questions about it. There are four possible answers (A, B, C, or D) for each question. Choose the best answer.(15pts) ( mỗi cõu viết đỳng được 3đ)
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. D
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0) (15pts) (( mỗi cõu viết đỳng được 1đ)
1. the 
2. up
3. to
4.so
5. that/which
6. since/as/ because/for
7. were
8. might/could
9. enough
10. least
11. in
12. more
13. who/ that
14. from
15. a
WRITING (25pts)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, begin with the given word(s) or phrase.(20pts( mỗi cõu viết đỳng được 2đ)
(It’s time) you reviewed your lessons for the exam.
(That’s) the man who used to work with me when I lived in New York.
(I wish) they would open the shops at lunch time/ Or. (I wished) they wouldn’t close the shops at lunch time.
(Although) we like ice- cream, we don’t have it everyday.
(How long) have you been working in that factory?
( The sand) of the beach was being slowly covered by oil.
( Mrs. Smith asked) (me) where the station car-park was.
(He regretted) not saying/ having said goodbye to her at the airport.
(If I) were you, I wouldn’t by that car.
(I suggest that) you (should) ask her yourself.
II. Make full sentences based on given cues. (5 points) ( mỗi cõu viết đỳng được 1đ)
If you don’t go to the party, I won’t go either.
Unless I have a quiet room, I will not/ won’t be able to do my homework/ any work.
The nurse is /was kind enough to help him (to) walk.
He would rather spend his holidays on a farm than at the seaside.
I have (just) returned from a visit to Japan. It was a wonderful trip.
	Tổng số điểm 100.
Sau khi chấm giỏm khảo quy về thang điểm 10.
Cỏch làm trũn điểm; ( vớ dụ) 	 7,1 7,0
	 7,2; 7,3 7,25
	 7,4; 7,6 7,5
	 7,7; 7,8 7,75
	 	 7,9 8,0
ĐỀ SỐ 3
UBND tỉnh vũng tàu
Sở Giáo dục - Đào Tạo
Đề chính thức
Kỳ thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 thpt chuyên
Năm học 2009 - 2010
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 9 (Cho thí sinh thi vào chuyên Anh)
Thời gian: 120 phút ( không kể thời gian giao đề )
Ngày thi: 25/ 6/ 2009
A. pronunciation (10 points).
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the others in each group. (5 points)
A. author
B. other
C. there
D. they
A. forest
B. control
C. product
D. ecology
A. industry
B. translate
C. construction
D. satisfy
A. baggage
B. courage
C. damage
D. invasion
A. advantage
B. addition
C. advertise
D. adventure
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (5 points)
A. deposit
B. festival
C. institute
D. resident 
A. surprising
B. astonishing
C. amazing
D. interesting
A. interview
B. industry
C. essential
D. difficult
A. extreme
B. generous
C. lonely
D. clothing
A. friendly
B. extra
C. along
D. orphanage
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 points).
I. Choose the best answers to completes each sentence. (10 points)
1. One problem for teacher is that each student has his/ her own ________ needs.
 A. separate
B. divided
C. ind

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