Đề thi môn Tiếng Anh - Thi thử THPT Quốc gia lần 5 - Năm học 2014-2015 - Mã đề 285 - Trường THPT Quảng La

SỞ GD & ĐT QUẢNG NINH
TRƯỜNG THPT QUẢNG LA
(Đề thi có 05 trang)
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015- LẦN 5 
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 
 Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút Mã đề thi: 285
I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 64 ( 8 điểm)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2.
Question 1: A. hours	B. fathers	C. dreams	D. thinks
Question 2: A. element	B. dedicate	C. event	D. devote
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 5
Question 3: A. explain	B. involve	C. purpose	D. advise
Question 4: A. suggestion 	B. cigarette 	C. environment 	D. protection
Question 5: A. electronic          	B. insurance                C. understand          	D. expedition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 6 to 24. 
Question 6: If you were not sick, ________ camping with us?
	A. do you go	B. are you going	C. will you go	D. would you go
Question 7:  Thanks to the women's liberation, women can take part in ________ activities.
	A. socially	B. social	C. society	D. socialize
Question 8: It’s a secret. You _________ let anyone know about it.
 A. needn’t 	 B. mustn’t 	 C. mightn’t	 D. may not
Question 9: _______ the light rain, the baseball game will not be cancelled unless the other team concedes.
	A. Despite	B. However	C. In spite	D. Although
 Question 10: David: “You‘ve got a beautiful dress!’’ - Helen: “___________.”
 A. Never mind	 B. You, too	 C. Thanks for your compliment D. Don’t mention it 
 Question 11: I try to be friendly but it is hard to _______ some of my colleagues.
 A. get on with	 B. watch out for	C. come up with	 D. stand in for
Question 12: I am bored with doing the _____ chores.
 A. housework	 B. house	C. household	 D. homework 
Question 13: It gets______to understand what the professor has explained. 
 A. the more difficult	 	B. more difficult than	 	
 C. difficult more and more	D. more and more difficult
Question 14: When Carol called last night, I _______ my favorite show on television.
	A. watched	B. am watching	C. was watching	D. have watched
Question 15: The more you practise your English, ________ .
	A. you will learn faster	B. the faster you will learn
	C. faster you will learn	D. the faster will you learn	
Question 16: Let’s go out for dinner, _______?
 A. don’t we	 B. shall we	 C. will you	D. won’t you
Question 17: They asked me _________ in Paris then.
	A. if my mother was working	B. was my mother working	
	C. if my mother had worked	D. if was my mother working	
Question 18: It is necessary that children______________of their old parents.
 A. takes care	 B. to take care	 C. take care	 D. took care
Question 19: ________________that she could not say anything.
 A. So upset was she	B. But upset was she 	
 C. However upset was she	D. Therefore upset was she
Question 20: Most children nowadays prefer watching TV ___________ reading books.
 A. over B. from C. than D. to
Question 21: There is only one Greek island I haven’t visited.
 A. which	 B. whom	 C. when	 D. who
Question 22: Had I studied harder, I______________better in the last exam.
 A. wouldn’t have done	 B. had done	 C. would have done	D. would do
Question 23: - Maria: “I’m taking my end term examination tomorrow".
	- Sarah: "____________.”
A. Good luck!	 B. Good day!	 C. Good time!	 D. Good chance!
Question 24: We _________ lots of photos when we went to Singapore last year.
 A. made	 B. took	C. did	D. caught
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 25 to 29.
Question 25: The trouble with Frank is that he never turns up on time for the meeting.
 A. arrives 	 B. tests 	 C. delays 	 D. takes after
Question 26: Childbearing is the women’s most wonderful role.
A. bring up a child	 B. giving birth to a baby	C. having no child	 D. educating a child 
Question 27: He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night.
A. impressive	 B. well- known	 C. important	 D. easy- looking
Question 28: The 1923 earthquake in Japan killed about 200,000 people and left countless wounded and homeless.
A. poor 	 B. imprisoned 	 C. suffered D. injured	
Question 29: The Red Cross gives medical aid and other help to victims of major disasters such as floods, earthquakes, epidemics, and famines.
	A. serious droughts	B. poverty 	
	C. shortage of water 	D. serious shortage of food
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction from 30 to 34. 
Question 30: Do you ever feel that life is not being fair to you because you cannot seem to get the 
 A	 B	 C
 job where you want or that really suits you? 
 D
Question 31: Mining over 2,000 years ago , copper is one of the earliest known metals.
	A	 B	 C	D
Question 32: Hardly he had got downstairs when the phone stopped ringing yesterday afternoon.
 A B C D
Question 33: The cars in garage were badly in need of to be repaired .
	 A B C D
Question 34: The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the rain. 
 A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 44
BASKETBALL
1 Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield, Massachusetts, Dr. James A Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a physical education instructor at the International YMCA, now Springfield College, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest in exercise among students during the wintertime. The new England winters were fierce, and the students balked at participating in outdoor activities. Naismith determined a fast-moving game that could be played indoors would fill a void after the baseball and football seasons had ended.
2 First, he attempted to adapt outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, but he soon found them unsuitable for confined areas. Finally, he determined that he would have to invent a game.
3 In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets at either end of the gymnasium at the school, and, using a soccer ball and nine players on each side, organized the first basketball game. The early rules allowed three points for each basket and made running with the ball violation. Every time a goal was made, someone had to climb a ladder to retrieve the ball.
4 Nevertheless, the game became popular. In less than a year, basketball was being played in both the United States and Canada. Five years later, a championship tournament was staged in New York City, which was won by the Brooklyn Central YMCA.
5 The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became standard in 1897 season. When basketball was introduced as a demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games in St. Luis, it quickly spread throughout the world. In 1906, a metal hoop was used for the first time to replace the basket, but the name basketball has remained.
(Source: Barron’s TOEFL PBT & iBT, by Pamela J. Sharpe, Ph.D)
 Question 35: What does this passage mainly discuss?
	A. Dr. James Naismith	B. The development of basketball
	C. The YMCA athletic program	D. The Olympic Games in St. Luis in 1904
 Question 36: Why did Naismith decide to invent basketball?
	A. He was tired of baseball and football
	B. He did not like soccer or rugby.
	C. He wanted his students to exercise during the winter.
	D. He could not convince his students to play indoors
 Question 37: The word "fierce" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
	A. long	B. boring	C. extreme	D. dark
 Question 38: Soccer and rugby are the example of ________.
	A. outdoor games	B. old peach baskets	C. indoor play	D. confined areas
 Question 39: The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to
	A. seasons	B. areas	C. indoors	D. games
 Question 40: The word "staged" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
	A. replaced	B. organized	C. run	D. remained
 Question 41: The author mentions all of the following as typical of the early game of basketball EXCEPT__________.
	A. nine players were on a team
	B. the ball had to be retrieved from the basket after each score
	C. three points were scored for every basket
	D. running with the ball was not a foul
Question 42: The word in the LAST paragraph that means "lessened" is _______.
	A. became	B. remained	C. reduced	D. introduced
Question 43: In which paragraph does the author discuss the first basketball championship tournament?
	A. Paragraph 2	B. Paragraph 3	C. Paragraph 5	D. Paragraph 4
 Question 44: Which sentence is TRUE about the basketball game, according to the reading passage?
	A. The basketball game became popular before 1891.
	B. There were five players on each side in 1897.
	C. The name of basketball has been changed since 1906.
	D. There were nine players on each side in 1904 season.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54
	Course numbers are an indication of which courses are to various categories of students at the University. Undergraduate courses with the numbers 100 or 200 are generally introductory courses appropriate for freshmen or sophomores, whereas courses with the numbers 300 or 400 often have prerequisites and are often to juniors and seniors only. Courses with the numbers 800 or above are open only to graduate students. Certain graduate courses, generally those devoted to introductory material, are numbered 400 for undergraduate students who qualify to take them and 600 for graduate students. Courses designed for students seeking a professional degree carry a 500 number for undergraduate students and a 700 number for graduate students. Courses numbered 99 or below are special interest courses that do not carry academic credit. If students elect to take a special interest course, it will not count toward the number of hours needed to complete graduation requirements.
	 Full-time undergraduate student is expected to take courses that total twelve to eighteen credit hours. A full-time graduate student is expected to take courses that total ten to sixteen credit hours. Student holding assistantships are expected to enroll for proportionately fewer hours. A part-time graduate may register for minimum of three credit hours. An overload, that is, more than the maximum number of hours, may be taken with the approval of an academic advisor. To register for an overload, students must submit the appropriate approval form when registering. Overloads above 24 hours will not be approved under any circumstances.
(Source: Practice Exercises for the TOEFL iBT, by Pamela J. Sharpe, Ph.D)
 Question 45: Where would the passage most likely be found?
	A. In a graduate course	B. In an undergraduate course
	C. In a college catalog	D. In a syllabus
 Question 46: What is the purpose of the passage?
	A. To apologize	B. To inform	C. To persuade	D. To criticize
 Question 47: The word "categories" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.
	A. teachers	B. courses	C. jobs	D. groups
 Question 48: The word "those" in paragraph 1 refers to_______.
	A. graduate courses	B. course numbers	C. introductory courses	D. graduate students
 Question 49: Which classification of students would be eligible to enroll in Mechanical Engineering 850?
	A. A part- time student	B. An undergraduate student	
	C. A full- time student	D. A graduate student
 Question 50: If an undergraduate student uses the number 520 to register a accounting course, what number would a graduate student probably use to register for the same course?
	A. Accounting 620	B. Accounting 820	C. Accounting 520	D. Accounting 720
 Question 51: How is a student who registers for eight credit hours classified?
	A. Full- time student	B. Graduate student	
	C. Part- time student	D. Non-degree student
 Question 52: Which of the following courses would NOT be included in the list of courses for graduation?
	A. English 90	B. Eglish 100	C. English 300	D. English 400
 Question 53: A graduate student may NOT_________.
	A. enroll in a course numbered 610	
	B. register for only one one-hour course
	C. enroll in an introductory course	
	D. register for courses if he has an assistantship
 Question 54: The word "appropriate" in the LAST paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
	A. wrong	B. interest	C. suitable	D. denial
 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the blank from 55 to 64
The UK Government ensures that all schools in the UK (55)_______ certain standards, and this includes independent schools as well as those that are (56)_______ by the Government. All qualifications are awarded by national agencies accredited by the Qualification and Curriculum Authority (QCA), (57)_______ the quality of the qualifications you will gain is guaranteed.
At many independent schools in England, you will be encouraged to take part (58)_______ extracurricular activities to develop your hobbies and learn new skills, and you may be encouraged to take graded music exams (59)_______ by the Associated Board of the Royal Schools of Music. The exam grades gained from these are widely accepted toward university entry (60)_______ .
Independent schools do not usually offer vocationally focused qualifications but if you are (61)_______ in these qualifications, you can find out more in the 'career-based and pre-university qualifications' section.
`	The (62)_______ you pay to attend independent school, include your course fees, accommodation and may include some or all extracurricular activities. Fees (63)_______ from school to school and are at the discretion of the institution; there are no national standards. You should expect to pay a minimum of £8,000 per year and fees can be (64)_______ high as £25,000.
 Question 55: A. meet	B. notice	C. see	D. look
 Question 56: A. worked	B. indicated	C. run	D. shown
 Question 57: A. although	B. so	C. if	D. because
 Question 58: A. for	B. in	C. on	D. into
 Question 59: A. offered	B. to offer	C. offering	D. offer
 Question 60: A. questions	B. requirements	C. problems	D. troubles
 Question 61: A. excited	B. concerned	C. interested	D. worried
 Question 62: A. funds	B. bills	C. donations	D. fees
 Question 63: A. transfer	B. vary	C. interfere	D. exchange
 Question 64: A. much	B. more	C. far	D. as
II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN ( 2 điểm) 
A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence before it.
Question 1: My book is not as expensive as yours.
à Your book is more_______________________________________________________
Question 2: : It took him two hours to drive to London.
à He spent _________________________________________________________
Question 3: . Although he was very tired, he managed to finish the marathon race. 
à In spite of_______________________________________________________
Question 4: This book is very interesting to me.
à I am interested_____________________________________________________________
Question 5: . I had no sooner closed the door than somebody knocked.
à Hardly had _____________________________________________________________
B. In about 100-120 words, write a paragraph about your family. 
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ TN THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015 -SỐ 5 Mã đề thi: 285
Phần trắc nghiệm: (64 câu - mỗi câu 0,125 điểm)
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WRITING(2,0 điểm)
A. Rewrite the following sentences in order to keep their original meanings. (0,5 điểm - mỗi câu 0,1 điểm)
Question 1: Your book is more expensive than mine/my book.
Question 2: He spent two hours to drive to London.
Question 3: In spite of being very tired, he managed to finish the marathon race. 
Question 4: I am interested in this book.
Question 5: Hardly had I closed the door when somebody knocked.
B. In about 100-120 words, write a paragraph about your family. 
 (1,5 điểm)
Giám khảo tự quyết định dựa trên các yêu cầu sau
Đáp ứng được cấu trúc của đoạn văn (Topic sentence, supporting ideas, concluding sentence): điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm
Đáp ứng được yêu cầu về nội dung của đề: điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm
Sử dụng linh hoạt và chính xác một số cấu trúc ngữ pháp , sử dựng được vốn từ vựng phong phú, bài văn viết trôi chảy, mạch lạc, đáp ứng được độ dài theo yêu cầu của đề: điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm
Sai dưới 4 lỗi về cấu trúc ngữ pháp, từ vựng không trừ điểm.
Sai trên 4 lỗi trừ điểm, đặc biệt các lỗi nặng trừ 0,1 điểm