Đề thi môn Tiếng Anh năm học 2016-2017 - Kỳ thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Trãi (Có đáp án)

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HẢI DƯƠNG
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 
THPT CHUYÊN NGUYỄN TRÃI
NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Chuyên)
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
(Đề thi có 05 trang)
Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi
Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết phương án chọn A, B, C hoặc D
Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất kỳ tài liệu gì)
________________________________________________________
A. LISTENING
	Hướng dẫn làm bài Nghe: 
Bài Nghe gồm có 02 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 02 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
	Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài.
Part I: Listen to seven conversations and fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS (14.0 points).
CONVERSATION 1
- She was joking because she decided not (1) _________.
CONVERSATION 2
- It rained every day in Hawaii, so she didn’t get (2) _________.
CONVERSATION 3
- The vacation was disappointing. He had to help his father (3) _________.
CONVERSATION 4
- He had a terrible vacation. The (4) _________ all the time.
CONVERSATION 5
- He went to the countryside. At six every morning, he was woken up (5) _________.
CONVERSATION 6
- His vacation was great until he (6) _________.
CONVERSATION 7
- She had to stay at home to study. Finally, she (7) _________. 
Part II: Listen to the recording and decide whether the statements are TRUE (T) or FALSE (F) (6.0 points).
T
F
8. Dave works as a receptionist.
9. Morton is invited to attend a party at the hotel on Friday evening.
10. Morton is not sure if he can come at eight o’clock.
11. Francesca asks Dave how to get to the corridor.
12. At ten o’clock, Morton is preparing some drinks.
13. Morton is too busy to go on chatting with Francesco.
B. PHONETICS
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from that of the others (3.0 points). 
14. 	A. congratulate	B. celebrate	C. compulsory	D. communicate
15. 	A. interactive	B. experience	C. commercial	D. linguistics
16. 	A. surgeon	B. surprise	C. surplus	D. surface	
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence below (17.0 points).
17. Hospital staff are _________ pressure to work longer hours.
	A. in	B. for	C. under	D. with
18. “_________ the villagers, I'd like to thank you for your generous donation,” Mr. Lam said.
A. According to 	B. On behalf of 	C. In addition to 	D. Thanks to 
19. The temperatures _________ take place vary widely for different materials.
	A. which melting and freezing	B. at which melting and freezing
	C. which they melt and freeze	D. at which they melt and freeze
20. The environment is _________ almost everywhere and many species of animals are in danger of extinction.
	A. threatening seriously	B. serious threatened	
C. seriously threaten	D. seriously threatened
21. “After careful consideration of your proposal, I regret _________ that we are unable to accept it,” the manager said to Mr. Edward.
	A. to say	B. to saying	C. saying	D. having to say 
22. _________ a tornado spins in a counterclockwise direction in the northern hemisphere, it spins in the opposite direction in the southern hemisphere.
	A. That	B. However	C. Because of	D. Although 
23. The boy said, “But for your encouragement, I _________ all the difficulties I had in the English course. Thank you.”
	A. will not have overcome	B. would not overcome	
C. will not overcome	D. would not have overcome
24. One difference between mathematics and language is that mathematics is precise _________.
	A. language is not	B. but language not	C. while is language	D. while language is not
25. The policeman asked Joe _________.
	A. where had he gone the previous day	B. where did he go the previous day
	C. where he had gone the previous day	D. where he had gone yesterday
26. Parking near the school causes severe traffic _________.
	A. accumulation	B. concentration	C. congestion	D. condensation
27. Susan: “What a lovely house you have!”	Tom: “_________.”
	A. Thanks. I can’t afford it	B. Thanks. Hope you’ll drop in
	C. Oh yes, yes! You’re right	D. Of course not! It’s costly
28. Woman: “Could you please bring me some more sugar?	Waiter: “_________.”
	A. Yes, I can, Madam	B. No, thanks	C. Certainly, Madam	D. I can’t agree with you more
29. Jeannette: “How are you going to get downtown this afternoon, Ann?” 	 Ann: “_________.”
	A. I’ll take a cab, perhaps	B. It would be interesting 
	C. About 3 miles, I guess	D. Thanks. I’d love to
30. Bill: “What do you think of what Mr. Cook said at the meeting.”	Susan: “_________”
	A. Well, I could help myself.	B. Sorry, I have no idea.
	C. Oh, he was good-looking, wasn’t he?	D. Oh, the meeting was boring. 
31. Static electricity _________ from one cloud to another or between clouds and the ground creates lightning.
	A. flows	B. the flow	C. flowing	D. is flowing 
32. Sarah invited loads of friends to her party, but only a handful of them _________.
	A. made up	B. pulled up	C. picked up	D. turned up
33. “Just keep _________ on the baby while I cook the dinner, will you?” Laura said to her husband.
	A. a care	B. an eye	C. a look	D. a glance 
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5.0 points).
34. The golden autumn light provided the (INSPIRE) _________ for the painting.
35. John enjoys working in general medicine, but he hopes to be able to (SPECIAL) _________ in the future.
36. The children listened (ATTENTION) _________ to the story because it was so interesting. 
37. Diana is fun to be with but can be a bit (PREDICT) _________ at times. We never know what kind of mood she is going to be in.
38. Environmental pollution brings extreme (UGLY) _________ to man’s naturally beautiful world.
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5.0 points).
39. “Will you purchase the microwave oven advertising on TV now, Susan?” asked Carol.
 A B C D
40. Since his accident last week, Mr. Lee has suffered from constantly headaches.
 A B C D
41. The holiday turned out to be so disappointed that they decided to ask for their money back.
 A B C D
42. As a matter of fact, the effective of learning with computers depends on many factors.
 A B C D
43. The type of jazz known as “swing” was introduced by Duke Ellington when he wrote and records “It Don’t Mean a 
 A B C D
Thing If It Ain’t Got That Swing.”
D. READING
I. There are five blanks in the passage below. From the options given in the box, choose the MOST SUITABLE for each blank. There are THREE EXTRA OPTIONS that you do not need to use (5.0 points).
A. certain words
B. to simplify
C. directories
D. to promote
E. number
F. textbooks
G. series of
H. grammatical rules
	Noah Webster’s goal in life was (44) _________ the adoption of an American language. He wanted to free Americans from British English as they had had freed themselves from the British crown. To this end, he published a (45) _________ three textbooks: a speller in 1783, a grammar in 1784 and a reader in 1785.
 	Webster objected to the way (46) _________ had been borrowed from other languages but had not been respelled. The result, he claimed, was a confusing mixture of letters, many of which were not pronounced the way they looked, and others of which were not pronounced at all.
 	Webster urged Americans (47) _________ their spelling. For example, he argued that “head” should be spelled “hed” and “bread” should be spelled “bred”. Most of Webster’s suggestions did not catch on, but his (48) _________ sold millions of copies.
II. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10.0 points).
	Health and fitness are not just for young people. They are for anyone (49) _________ to accept the discipline for a good diet and (50) _________ exercise. (51) _________ age, there is a tendency to feel that the body is no longer able to perform. Aches and pains are (52) _________ normal. Instead of (53) _________ the body to do more, activities become limited. Yet examples after examples have shown us that older people can - and should - be (54) _________ . Men and women in their sixties have run in marathons, races of more than twenty-six miles. Some professional athletes stay (55) _________ into their forties and fifties. For most people, simple activities like walking and swimming are all that is needed to stay in (56) _________ . It is important to include exercise in your daily routine. In the winter, (57) _________ push-ups, sit-ups, and other indoor exercises. Of course, such exercises will be of little use (58) _________ you follow them with soda and chips. 
49. 	A. suspicious	B. willing	C. aware	D. conscious
50. 	A. regular 	B. useful 	C. abundant 	D. little
51. 	A. At	B. In	C. To	 	D. With
52. 	A. believed 	B. thought 	C. hoped	D. considered
53. 	A. making	B. pushing 	C. stopping	D. providing
54. 	A. pessimistic 	B. active 	C. hyperactive	D. passive
55. 	A. calm 	B. competitive 	C. equal 	D. comparative
56. 	A. need 	B. form 	C. contact 	D. shape
57. 	A. make 	B. get 	C. work 	D. do
58. 	A. although 	B. unless 	C. if 	D. otherwise
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question (10.0 points).
	Georgia O’Keefe was born in Sun Prairie, Wisconsin, in 1887. She studied art in Chicago and New York from 1904 to 1908. Beginning as an advertising illustrator, she supported herself until 1918 by teaching in various schools and colleges in Texas. After that date, she devoted herself entirely to painting. Her paintings were first exhibited in 1916 at “291”, an experimental art gallery in New York City owned by Alfred Steiglitz, which was frequented by some of the most influential artists of the time. O’Keefe married Steiglitz in 1924.
	O’Keefe’s early paintings were mostly abstract designs. In the 1920s she produced depictions of flowers and precise cityscapes of New York City. Whether painting flowers or buildings, she captured their beauty by intuitively magnifying their shapes and simplifying their details.
	O’Keefe’s style changed dramatically in 1929 during a visit to New Mexico. She was enchanted by the stark but beautiful landscapes under the bright Southwestern sun, and she then adopted her characteristic style. Thereafter, she most often painted desert landscapes, often with the blanched skull of a longhorn in the foreground.
	O’Keefe’s paintings were exhibited annually at several New York galleries until 1946, and she is represented in the permanent collections of most major American museums. In her later years, she settled in Taos, New Mexico, becoming the dean of Southwestern painters and one of the best known of American artists.
59. The author wrote this passage in order to _________.
	A. give the highlights of Georgia O’Keefe’s artistic career
	B. discuss the early career of an important American artist
	C. compare abstract art and landscape art
	D. criticize Georgia O’Keefe’s style of painting
60. The phrase “that date” in the first paragraph refers to _________.
	A. 1887	B. 1908	C. 1916	D. 1918
61. According to the passage, Georgia O’Keefe received her formal art training in _________.
	A. Texas	B. Taos, New Mexico	
C. Sun Prairie, Wisconsin	D. Chicago and New York
62. The word “frequented” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
	A. founded	B. supported	C. favored	D. visited 
63. Which of the following had the greatest influence on changing O’Keefe’s style of painting?
	A. her job as an advertising illustrator	B. meeting influential artists
	C. a trip to the Southwest	D. Alfred Steiglitz’s photographs
64. Which of the following became the most common subject of O’Keefe’s after 1929?
	A. city scenes	B. desert scenes	C. flowers	D. abstract patterns
65. The word “annually” in the last paragraph means _________.
	A. once a week 	B. once a month	C. once a year	D. once a century
66. It can be inferred from the passage that, in her later years, O’Keefe _________.
	A. continued to be successful	B. returned to New York City
	C. took up photography	D. could not match the success of her early career
67. The word “their” in the second paragraph refers to_________.
	A. precise cityscapes	B. flowers	C. buildings	D. flowers and buildings	
68. Which of the followings is NOT true, according to the passage?
	A. “291” belonged to Alfred Steiglitz.	
B. Georgia O’Keefe got married when she was in her thirties.
	C. After 1918 Georgia O’Keefe taught in various schools and colleges in Texas.
	D. O’Keefe was strongly attracted by the landscapes under the bright Southwestern sun.
E. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it (5.0 points).
69. It was such a complicated problem that nobody could solve it.
@ So ...
70. Mr. Jacob only bought the parrot because his son wanted a pet.
@ If..
71. Everybody was not surprised to hear that Caroline had not passed her driving test.
@ It came ...
72. My sister refused to get the job in spite of the attractive salary.
@ Attractive 
73. The heavy snow prevented the students from going to the mountain.
@ The heavy snow made 
II. Use the suggested words and phrases below to make a complete letter (10.0 points).
Dear Mai,
74. I / write / tell / holiday.
75. I / be / Kuala Lumpur / two weeks / now / and / I / have / good time / beautiful country.
76. I / spend / first few days / visit / Twin Towers / other / tourist attractions.
77. must / say / Malaysian people / friendly / and / always / ready / help.
78. Most places / Kuala Lumpur / crowded / tourists / over / world.
79. Yesterday / shopping / and / buy / few souvenirs / parents / friends.
80. I / lose / way back / hotel / but / not / matter / because / I / discover / fascinating market / lots / little stalls / sell / almost everything / needles / elephants.
81. Today / I / be / couple / art galleries / and / meet / interesting people / there.
82. I / guess / I / spend / lot / money / so far, / but / Malaysia / great country / visit.
83. I / take / photos / and / I / show / you / when / get home / June 10th.
See you again.
Trang
III. It is a fact that a lot of Vietnamese students go abroad to study every year. However, studying in a foreign country has both advantages and disadvantages. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Write an essay of about 180 - 200 words to support your opinion (10.0 points).
=== THE END ===
Họ và tên thí sinh:. Số báo danh:
Họ và tên giám thị 1:. Chữ ký:.
Họ và tên giám thị 2:. Chữ ký:.
UBND TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG
SỞ GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO
ĐÁP ÁN CHÍNH THỨC
ĐÁP ÁN, BIỂU ĐIỂM ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN NGUYỄN TRÃI
NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Chuyên)
A. LISTENING
Part I. (14 points): 2.0 points for each correct answer
	1. to go away	2. a tan	3. fix his / the car	4. kids were fighting
	5. by the birds	6. broke his leg	7. failed her / the exam
Part II. (6.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
	8. T	9. F	10. F	11. F	12. T	13. T
B. PHONETICS
 (3.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
14. B	15. A	16. B
C: GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. (15 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
	17. C	18. B	19. B	20. D	21. A	22. D
	23. D	24. D	25. C	26. C	27. B	28. C
	29. A	30. B	31. C	32. D	33. B
II. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
	34. INSPIRATION	35. SPECIALISE / SPECIALIZE	
36. ATTENTIVELY	37. UNPREDICTABLE	38. UGLINESS 	
III. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
39. C	40. D	41. B	42. B	43. D	
D. READING
I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
44. D	45. G	46. A	47. B	48. F
II. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
49. B	50. A	51. D	52. D	53. B
54. B	55. B	56. D	57. D	58. C
III. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
	59. A	60. D	61. D	62. D	63. C
	64. B	65. C	66. A	67. D	68. C
E. WRITING
I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer
69. So complicated was the problem that nobody could solve it.
70. If Mr. Jacob’s son had not wanted a pet, he would not have bought the parrot.
Or, If his son had not wanted a pet, Mr. Jacob would not have bought the parrot.
71. It came as no surprise (to everybody) to hear that Caroline had not passed her driving test.
72. Attractive as the salary was, my sister refused to get the job.
73. The heavy snow made it impossible for the students to go to the mountain.
II. (10 points): 
Dear Mai,
74. I am writing / write to tell you about my holiday (0.5 p).
75. I have been in Kuala Lumpur for two weeks now (0.5 p) and I am having / have had a good time in a beautiful country (0.5 p).
76. I spent my / the first few days visiting the Twin Towers and other tourist attractions (0.5 p).
77. I must say (that) Malaysian people are (very) friendly (0.5 p) and (they are) always ready to help (0.5 p).
78. Most places in / of Kuala Lumpur are crowded with tourists (0.5 p) (who come / are) from all over the world (0.5 p).
79. Yesterday I went shopping (0.5 p) and bought a few souvenirs for my parents and friends (0.5 p).
80. I lost my way back to the / my hotel (0.5 p) but it did not matter (0.5 p), because I discovered a fascinating market with lots of little stalls (0.5 p) which / that sell / selling almost everything from needles to elephants (0.5 p).
81. Today, I have (just) been to a couple of art galleries (0.5 p) and met many / some / a lot of / lots of / a few interesting people (0.5 p).
82. I guess I have spent a lot of money so far (0.5 p), but Malaysia is a great country to visit (0.5 p).
83. I have taken lots of / a lot of / many / some / a few photos (0.5 p) and I will show you when I get home on June 10th (0.5 p) .
See you again.
Trang
III. (10 points): 
Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá
Điểm tối đa
1.
Bố cục
2.0
s Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc
s Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài
s Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận
2.
Phát triển ý
1.5
s Phát triển ý có trình tự logic
s Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình 
3.
Sử dụng ngôn ngữ
2.5
s Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung
s Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại
s Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển
4.
Nội dung
2.5
s Đủ thuyết phục người đọc
s Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận
s Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%
5.
Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả
1.5
s Sử dụng đúng dấu câu
s Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả
- Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm / sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết)
- Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi
s Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm / sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.)
Tổng
10.0