Đề thi môn Tiếng Anh - Luyện thi THPT Quốc gia 2015-2016 - Đề số 30 - Lê Quốc Bảo

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 ĐỀ SỐ 30 
SECTION A : MÃ ĐỀ 321 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of 
the main stress in each of the following questions. 
Question 1: A. managed B. threatened C. passed D. cleared 
Question 2: A. check B. cheap C. change D. chemistry 
Question 3: A. island B. especial C. escape D. isolate 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in 
each of the following questions. 
Question 4: A. vacancy B. family C. consider D. furniture 
Question 5: A. prevention B. implement C. fertilize D. enterprise 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following 
questions. 
Question 6: There is no other place near here to get your motorbike _________ 
A. repaired B. repair C. to repair D. repairing 
Question 7: My aunt is a wildlife photographer. She _______ in London for many years. 
A. have been living B. will live C. has been living D. lives 
Question 8: The tourists asked me how _________to the post office. 
A. did they get B. they could get C. would they get D. could they get 
Question 9: The government travel health advisory body recommends that pregnant women should “consider 
_________ travel” to areas where Zika outbreaks are currently reported. 
A. to avoid B. avoiding C. being avoided D. avoid 
Question 10: ____________ your help, I wouldn't have got the scholarship. 
A. Had not it been for B. Unless I had C. If I had had D. But for 
Question 11: The girls and flowers ___________ he painted were vivid. 
A. who B. that C. whose D. which 
Question 12: The kind-hearted woman _______ all her life to helping the disabled and the poor. 
A. wasted B. spent C. dedicated D. lived 
Question 13: Had we caught the earlier train, we__________ home by now. 
A. would have been B. would be C. are D. had been 
Question 14: Peter saw Linda in her new dress at the party. Choose the most suitable sentence to fill in the blank in 
the following exchange. 
Peter: “_______________” 
Landa: “Thank you for your compliment.” 
A. You’ve done very well B. This is a present for you 
C. I’m glad that you’re well again D. You look pretty in this dress 
Question 15: Toxic chemicals in the air and land, contaminated water and increased water temperatures have also 
driven many spices to the verge _________ extinction. 
A. for B. in C. to D. of 
Question 16: The richer you are, ______. 
A. the more you may become worried B. the more worried you may become 
C. the more worry you may become D. you may become more worried 
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Question 17: Travel can ______ the mind, and exchange visits give young people experience of a _______ way of 
life as well as a different language. 
A. broadly/different B. broaden/different C. broad/differently D. broaden/differ 
Question 18: It is imperative that the world __________ towards a solution to global warming before the weather 
patterns of the world are disrupted irreparably. 
A. work B. to work C. works D. is working 
Question 19: My mother bought ___________ from a shop on Ba Dinh street. 
A. a nice brown leather belt B. a brown nice leather belt 
C. a leather brown nice belt D. a nice leather brown belt 
Question 20: The movie is ______ Shakespeare’s Hamlet in a number of ways. 
A. like to B. alike with C. similar to D. same as 
Question 21: When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty______ paintings were destroyed, including two by 
Picasso. 
A. worthless B. valueless C. priceless D. meaningless 
Question 22: I could hear voices but I couldn’t ________what they were saying. 
A. turn up B. bring about C. make out D. try out 
Question 23: ____ I am aware, there were no problems during the first six months.. 
A. As far as B. So much as C. Much more than D. Except that 
Question 24: Lan and Mai was taking about their study at school. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the 
blank in the following exchange. 
Mai: “I thought your English skill was a lot better, Lan.” 
Lan: “__________” 
A. Thank you. I’d love to. B. Yes, please. Just a little. 
C. No, thanks. I think I can do it. D. You’ve got to be kidding. I thought it was bad 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase which is CLOSEST in meaning 
to the underlined word or phrase. 
Question 25: Early sailing ships had some disadvantages. 
A. losses B. damages C. discomforts D. drawbacks 
Question 26: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence. 
A. publicly supported B. openly criticized 
C. strongly condemned D. publicly said 
Question 27: The Olympic Games impressed sports enthusiasts with its spirit: solidarity, cooperation for peace and 
development. 
A. had a favourable effect on B. interested 
C. amazed D. created strong relation from. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning 
to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 
Question 28: Cancer is becoming one of the common diseases. 
A. ordinary B. universal C. rare D. usual 
Question 29: When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on the air. 
A. extremely happy B. extremely light 
C. feeling extremely airy D. feeling extremely unhappy 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for 
each of the blanks. 
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather patterns (30)___ strongly affect the world. When the water 
is warm, the (31)___ of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding regions decreases. Australia could (32)___ 
experience a drought in many parts. On (33)___ hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for (34)___ 
rainstorms. In Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes the area 
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much drier. This happening is called El Nino and is used (35)___ weather forecasters to make long-range weather 
predictions. They also know that El Nino will (36)___ unusually heavy rains to the southwestern part of the United 
States and make the central part of the country drier at the same time. According to research, weather forecasters 
(37)___ know about the coming weather with certainty. Now everything has become completely different. El Nino 
itself used to be (38)___. It would occur every two to seven years. But now, this weather pattern is becoming more 
frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or cyclones occur. Scientists are unsure of the reason for this 
(39)___ on a global scale either. 
 (Source: vi4.ilovetranslation.com) 
Question 30: A. that B. when C. what D. whether 
Question 31: A. figure B. number C. deal D. amount 
Question 32: A. nevertheless B. ever C. however D. even 
Question 33: A. the other B. another C. other D. others 
Question 34: A. strict B. severe C. cruel D. angry 
Question 35: A. to B. by C. on D. at 
Question 36: A. fetch B. bring C. carry D. take 
Question 37: A. get used to B. are used to C. used to be D. used to 
Question 38: A. remarkable B. notable C. incredible D. predictable 
Question 39: A. transfer B. shift C. change D. transformation 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in 
each of the following questions. 
Question 40: The number of women earning Master's Degrees have risen sharply in recent years. 
 A B C D 
Question 41: Traditionally, Americans and Asians have had very different ideas about love and married. 
 A B C D 
Question 42: It was in 2006 when she got married to a well-known movie star. 
 A B C D 
Question 43: Chicago’s Sears Tower, now the taller building in the world, rises 1,522 feet from the 
 A B C 
ground to the top of its antenna. 
 D 
Question 44: Tom likes to gossip about other people, so he doesn’t like them to gossip about him. 
 A B C D 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer 
to each of the questions. 
LEVEL OF VOCABULARY 
Most languages have several levels of vocabulary that may be used by the same speakers. In English, at least three 
have been identified and described. 
Standard usage includes those words and expressions understood, used, and accepted by a majority of the speakers 
of a language in any situation regardless of the level of formality. As such, these words and expression are well defined 
and listed in standard dictionaries. Colloquialisms, on the other hand, are familiar words and idioms that are 
understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in informal speed or writing, but not considered acceptable 
for more formal situations. Almost all idiomatic expressions are colloquial language. Slang, refers to words and 
expressions understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as appropriate formal usage by the majority. 
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Colloquial expressions and even slang may be found in standard dictionaries but will be so identified. Both 
colloquial usage and slang are more common in speech than writing. Colloquial speech often passes into standard 
speech. Some slang also passes into standard speech, but other slang expressions enjoy momentary popularity 
followed by obscurity. In some cases, the majority never accepts certain slang phrases but nevertheless retains them 
in their collective memories. Every generation seems to require its own set of words to describe familiar objects and 
events. 
It has been pointed out by a number of linguists that three cultural conditions are necessary for the creation of a 
large body of slang expressions. First, the introduction and acceptance of new objects and situations in the society; 
second, a diverse population with a large number of subgroups; third, association among the subgroups and the 
majority population. 
Finally, it is worth noting that the terms “standard”, “colloquial”, and “slang” exist only as abstract labels for 
scholars who study language. Only a tiny number of the speakers of any language will be aware that they are using 
colloquial or slang expressions. Most speakers of English will, during appropriate situations, select and use three types 
of expressions. 
 (Source: TOEFL Reading) 
Question 45: The word "appropriate" in line 9 is closest in meaning to ________. 
A. old B. large C. important D. correct 
Question 46: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? 
A. Standard speech B. Different types of vocabulary 
C. Idiomatic phrases D. Dictionary usage 
Question 47:The word "obscurity" in line 13 could best be replaced by ________. 
A. tolerance B. influence C. qualification D. disappearance 
Question 48: How is “slang” defined by the author? 
A. Words and phrases accepted by the majority of formal usage. 
B. Words or phrases understood by the majority but not found in standard dictionaries. 
C. Words or phrases that are understood by a restricted group of speakers. 
D. Words or phrases understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as formal 
Question 49: Where in the passage does the author explain where colloquial language and slang are most commonly 
used? 
A. Line 21-23 B. Line 16-17 C. Line 10-11 D. Line 3-4 
Question 50:Which of the following is true of standard usage? 
A. It is constantly changing B. It is limited to written language 
C. It is only understood by the upper classes D. It can be used in formal and informal settings 
Question 51: The word “them” in line 14 refers to ________. 
A. slang phrases B. words C. the majority D. memories 
Question 52:The author mentions all of the following as requirements for slang expressions to be created EXCEPT 
________. 
A. new situations B. a number of linguists 
C. interaction among diverse groups D. new generation 
Question 53: It can be inferred from the passage that the author ________. 
A. does not approve of either slang or colloquial speech in any situation 
B. approves of slang and colloquial speech in appropriate situations 
C. approves of colloquial speech in some situations, but not slang 
D. does not approve of colloquial usage in writing 
Question 54: What does the author mean by the statement in line 5-7: "Colloquialisms, on the other hand, are 
familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in informal speech 
or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations."? 
A. Informal language contains colloquialisms, which are not found in more formal language. 
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B. Familiar situations that are experienced by most people are called colloquialisms. 
C. Familiar words and phrases are found in both speech and writing in formal settings. 
D. Most of the speakers of a language can used both formal and informal speech in their appropriate situations. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer 
to each of the question. 
PANDEMIC DISEASES 
Diseases are a natural part of life on earth. If there were no diseases, the population would grow too quickly, and 
there would not be enough food or other resources, so in a way, diseases are natural ways of keeping the Earth in 
balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and kill large numbers of people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak 
of the flu spread across the world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a 
disease are called pandemics. 
Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to fight. In 1918, a new type 
of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed large 
numbers of people. While there have been many different pandemic diseases throughout history, all of them have a 
new thing in common. 
First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. 
Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example of this 
would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In addition, it is deadly. About 70 
-80% of all people who get the Marburg virus died from the disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a 
pandemic because most people die within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have 
enough time to spread a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a week 
to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread. 
While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less common. Doctors carefully 
monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For example, in 2002, and 2003, doctors carefully 
watched SARS. Their health warnings may have prevented SARS from becoming a pandemic. 
 (Source: TOEFL Reading) 
Question 55: According to paragraph 1, how are diseases a natural part of life on Earth? 
A. They prevent pandemics B. They help control the population 
C. They led the world grow quickly D. They kill too many people 
Question 56: Based on the information in the passage the term “pandemics” can be explained as ______ 
A. diseases with no cure 
B. a deadly kind of flu 
C. diseases that spread quickly and kill large numbers of people 
D. new disease like SARS or the Marburg virus 
Question 57: According to the passage, what causes pandemics? 
A. Changes in a disease that body cannot fight 
B. Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of disease 
C. Population growth that the world cannot support 
D. The failure to make new medicines 
Question 58: According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic EXCEPT that ______ 
A. it involved a new kind of flu virus B. it killed over 25 million people 
C. it was the last pandemic in history D. it took a little over a week to kill its victims 
Question 59: The word “it” in the passage refers to _______ 
A. disease B. flu virus C. pandemics D. bodies 
Question 60: Which of the following is mentioned as a common feature of all pandemic diseases? 
A. They spread from people to people very quickly 
B. It kill many people very quickly 
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C. They do not kill people very quickly 
D. They kill all the victims 
Question 61: According to paragraph 3, why hasn’t Marburg virus become a pandemic? 
A. It is not a deadly disease 
B. It does not spread from person to person easily 
C. Doctors have prevented it from becoming a pandemic 
D. It kills people too quickly 
Question 62: The word ‘monitor’ in the passage is closest in meaning to _______ 
A. fight B. prevent C. watch D. avoid 
Question 63: The author mentions SARS in order to ________ 
A. give an example of a highly dangerous disease 
B. suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic 
C. give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic 
D. suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon. 
Question 64: This passage is mainly about________ 
A. how to prevent pandemic diseases B. pandemic diseases 
C. pandemic diseases throughout history D. why pandemics happen 
SECTION B: 
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. 
Write your answers on your answer sheet. 
Question 65: “Would you like to come to my party tomorrow?” Jean invited me. 
 Jean _______________________________________________________________. 
Question 66: You won’t lose weight if you don’t stop eating much. 
 Unless ___________________________________________________________________. 
Question 67: Since the invention of computer, people have saved a lot of time. 
 Since the computer was ________________________________________________. 
Question 68: Although he worked very hard, he didn’t manage to pass the exam. 
 Despite _____________________________________________________________. 
Question 69: The plane had hardly left the airport when the accident happened. 
 No sooner ___________________________________________________________. 
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the women’s role in mordern society. Write your 
paragraph on your answer sheet. 
The following prompts might be helpful to you. 
- Social activities. 
- Work. 
- Education. 
- Economic dependence. 
- Domestic chores 
---------- THE END --------- 
ĐÁP ÁN 
 (MÃ ĐỀ THI 321) 
SECTION A (8 points) 
Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án Câu Đáp án 
1 C 17 B 33 A 49 C 
2 D 18 A 34 B 50 D 
3 A 19 A 35 B 51 A 
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4 C 20 C 36 B 52 B 
5 A 21 C 37 D 53 B 
6 A 22 C 38 D 54 A 
7 C 23 A 39 C 55 B 
8 B 24 D 40 C 56 C 
9 B 25 D 41 D 57 A 
10 D 26 A 42 A 58 C 
11 B 27 A 43 B 59 B 
12 C 28 C 44 B 60 C 
13 B 29 D 45 C 61 D 
14 D 30 A 46 B 62 B 
15 D 31 D 47 D 63 B 
16 B 32 D 48 D 64 B 
SECTION B 
I. (0,5 điểm) 
Question 65: Jean invited me to come to her party the next day. 
Question 66: Unless you stop eating much, you won’t lose weight. 
Question 67: Since the computer was invented, people have saved a lot of time. 
Question 68: Despite the fact that he worked very hard,/ working very hard,/ he didn’t manage to pass the exam. 
Question 69: No sooner had the plane left the airport than the accident happened. 
II. (1.5 điểm) 
 Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá Điểm tối đa 
1. Bố cục 0.40 
 o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc 
o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài 
o Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận 
2. Phát triển ý 0.25 
 o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic 
o Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ,  đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình 
3. Sử dụng ngôn ngữ 0.30 
 o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung 
o Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại 
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o Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển 
4. Nội dung 0.30 
 o Đủ thuyết phục người đọc 
o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận 
o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 
5% 
5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả 0.25 
 o Sử dụng đúng dấu câu 
o Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả 
_ Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một 
lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) 
_ Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi 
o Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/ sai 
lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.) 
 Tổng 1.5