Đề thi môn Tiếng Anh - Kiểm tra chất lượng ôn thi THPT Quốc gia năm 2015-2016 - Đề số 22 - Đỗ Bình (Có đáp án)

MR. BEAN’S MATERIALS
(Đề thi gồm: 06 trang)
ĐỀ KTCL ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
Môn: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 22
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: (8 điểm)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. mammal 	B. material 	C. saddle 	D. manage
Question 2. A. there 	B. chair 	C. clear 	D. hair
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. computer 	B. museum 	C. important 	D. visitor
Question 4. A. calculator 	B. intelligent 	C. impossible 	D. American
Question 5. A. artificial 	B. aristocrat 	C. arithmetic 	D. argument
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 
Question 6: At fifty-five, he began life again, determined with his pen to wipe out the debt.
A. rub out	B. pay off	C. bump off	D. give up
Question 7: The National Institute of Mental Health is conducting far-reaching research to determine the psychological effects of using drugs. 
A. refined	 B. extensive	 	C. prevalent	 	D. tentative
Question 8: Within their home country, National Red Cross and Red Crescent societies assume the duties and responsibilities of a national relief society.
A. take on 	B. get off 	C. go about 	D. put in
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions.
Question 9. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual meeting in May.
A. politeness	B. rudeness	C. measurement	D. encouragement
Question 10. A frightening number of illiterate students are graduating from college.
A. able to read and write	
B. able to join intramural sport
C. inflexible	
D. unable to pass an examination in reading and writing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 11. The rain came sudden and everybody got wet because nobody had an umbrella.
A. sudden 	B. got 	C. nobody 	D. an
Question 12. Children nowadays seem to be more intelligenter than their parents when they were at the same age. 
A. nowadays 	B. more intelligenter 	C. were 	D. age
Question 13. When I came in, my father was talking to anyone so I went out quietly.
A. came 	B. anyone 	C. talking 	D. quietly
Question 14. I want to try on the blue skirt over there. Can you showing me the changing room?
A. want 	B. on 	C. Can 	D. showing 
Question 15. Can you make me a cup of coffee? No, there are no coffee left.
A. of 	B. make 	C. Can 	D. are no
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 16. The scientific study of the life and structure of plants and animals is called____________.
A. biology 	B. philosophy 	C. geography	D. physic
Question 17. The process of finding somebody/ something, or learning about something that was not known about before is called a/an___________.
A. finding 	B. experiment 	C. discovery	D. development
Question 18. The science of numbers and shapes is called___________.
A. physics 	B. mathematics 	C. biology	D. politics
Question 19. When you___________ food, you chance it into substances that your body can use.
A. cure	B. digest	C. invent	D. fee
Question 20. A force of attraction that causes objects to move towards each other is called_________.
A. electricity	B. Evolution	C. gravitation	D. invention
Question 21. Christopher Columbus___________ the New Continent quite by chance.
A. invented 	B. discovered 	C. experimented	D. developed
Question 22. The telephone was___________ by Graham Bell.
A. discovered 	B. cured 	C. appointed	D. invented
Question 23. Issac Newton had to do many___________ before he could produce an electric lamp.
A. discoveries 	B. inventions 	C. experiments	D. developments
Question 24. Most of the experiments are carried out in___________.
A. laboratories	B. farms 	C. fields	D. schools
Question 25. Charles Darwin was the father of the___________ of evolution.
A. practice 	B. project 	C. theory	D. problem
Question 26. Mike: “I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!”
 Jane: “____________________.”
 	A. The same to you	B. Have a nice day!	
C. What a pity!	D. What a lovely toy! Thanks
Question 27. Laura: “What a lovely house you have “ Mary: “____________________.”
A. Of course not, it’s not costly	B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in	
C. I think so	D. No problem
Question 28. Peter: “Has an announcement been made about the eight o’clock flight to Paris?”
 Mary: “____________________.”
A. Yes, it was	B. Sorry, I don’t	C. I don’t think that	D. Not yet
Question 29. The first amusement park in our city was a__________ success for its owners. Everybody would go there to have a good time. 
A. cracking 	B. ringing 	C. sparking 	D. roaring 
Question 30. This position is very prestigious, you should__________ to any occasion to prove that you really deserve it.
 	A. assume 	B. rise 	C. conform 	D. endeavour 
Question 31. The number of the victims of the earthquake has been__________ at no less than 150. 
A. amounted 	B. counted 	C. estimated 	D. scored 
Question 32. I shall do the job to the best of my__________. 
A. ability 	B. knowledge 	C. talent 	D. capacity 
Question 33. Going on this diet has really__________ me good. I’ve lost weight. 
A. made 	B. taken 	C. done 	D. had 
Question 34. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have__________ any solutions. 
A. got round to 	B. looked into 	C. thought over 	D. come up with 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun.
Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.
Question 35. What is the main point of the first paragraph?	
A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
Question 36. The word "felt" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to____________.
A. based B. dropped	C. detected 	D. explored
Question 37. The words "In reality" in the second paragraph are closest in meaning to____________.
A. surprisingly 	B. actually C. characteristically	D. similarly
Question 38. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is____________.
A. size 	B. distance 	C. temperature	D. density
Question 39. The word "correspondingly" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to__________.
A. unpredictably 	B. interestingly 	C. similarly 	D. unusually
Question 40. What is the cause of spring tides?	
A. Seasonal changes in the weather
B. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth
C. The Earth's movement around the Sun	
D. The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon
Question 41. The word "configuration" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to____________.
A. unit 	B. center C. surface D. arrangement
Question 42. Neap tides occur when____________.
 	A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction	
B. the Moon is full
 	C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun	
D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
Question 43. According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true EXCEPT ____________.
A. The time of high tide is later each day	
B. Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do
C. The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon
D. Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides
Question 44. Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than those caused by tides?
A. Lines 2-5 	B. Lines 10-11 C. Lines 12-13 D. Lines 17-20
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
It is estimated (the (45)____________ number is not known that worldwide some 60,000 newspapers exists, with a (46)____________ circulation of nearly 500 million. However, the number of readers is (47)____________ greater-as many as three times the circulation figure.
This is because newspapers are shared, some are posted, and (48)____________ placed in libraries and other (49)____________ places. Worldwide, about 8,000 of these newspapers are dailies. About a third of all newspapers are published in North America, (50)____________ third in Europe, and the (51)____________ third in the rest of the world. Countries with the highest newspaper (52)____________ are Britain, Norway, Denmark, Sweden, Japan, and the United States. Europe has nearly half of the world's total newspaper circulation, North America about a quarter, and the rest of the world another quarter. Taking the world (53)____________, the average circulation of dailies per 1,000 persons is about 100, but there are many parts of the world where the modern newspaper is (54)____________ ever seen.
Question 45. A. correct 	B. exact 	C. right 	D. precise
Question 46. A. combined 	 	B. connected 	C. linked 	D. mixed
Question 47. A. even 	B. more 	C. far 	D. very
Question 48. A. the rest 	B. another 	C. the others 	D. others
Question 49. A. public 	B. common 	C. open 	D. shared
Question 50. A. the next 	B. the other 	C. another 	D. the last
Question 51. A. spare 	B. extra 	C. left 	D. remaining
Question 52. A. readers 	B. readership 	C. buyers 	D. subscribers
Question 53. A. as a whole 	B. in all 	C. generally 	D. on general
Question 54. A. not 	 	B. almost 	C. scarcely 	D. seldom
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of the Earth - is a vast frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth's surface, the deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space. 
 	Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of the National Science Foundation's Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP).Using techniques first developed for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP's drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean's surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor. 
 	The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger's core samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to calculate what it will probably look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger's voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth. 
 	The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the world's past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates. This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change - information that may be used to predict future climates.
Question 55. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a "frontier" in the first paragraph because it ___________. 
A. is not a popular area for scientific research 	B. contains a wide variety of life forms 
C. attracts courageous explorers 	D. is an unknown territory 
Question 56. The word "inaccessible" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to___________.
A. unrecognizable	B. unreachable	C. unusable	D. unsafe 
Question 57. The author mentions outer space in line 6 because___________.
A. the Earth's climate millions of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space. 
B. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment 
C. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor 
D. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration 
Question 58. Which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger? 
A. It is a type of submarine.	B. It is an ongoing project. 
C. It has gone on over 100 voyages.	D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968. 
Question 59. The word "extracting" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to___________.
A. breaking	B. locating 	C. removing	D. analyzing 
Question 60. The word "theories" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to___________.
A. belief	B. explanation	C. suspection	D. understanding 
Question 61. The deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was___________.
A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas 
B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom 
C. composed of geologists form all over the world 	
D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry 
Question 62. The word "strength" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to___________.
A. basis 	B. purpose 	C. discovery	D. endurance 
Question 63. The word "they" in the fourth paragraph refers to___________.
A. years	B. climates 	C. sediments	D. cores 
Question 64. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project? 
A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth's appearance hundreds of millions of years ago. 
B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted 
C. Information was revealed about the Earth's past climatic changes. 
D. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen. 
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (2 điểm)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that the original meaning is exactly the same as the provided one.
Question 1. I haven’t seen that man here before.
 	→ It’s the first time I have ever seen that man.
Question 2. The furniture was so expensive that I didn’t buy it.
 	→ The furniture was too expensive for me to buy.
Question 3. The robbers made the bank manager hand over on the money.
 	→ The bank manager was made to hand over the money by the robbers.
Question 4. Tom learned to drive when he was nineteen.
 	→ Tom has been able to drive since he was nineteen.
Question 5. She had never been so unhappy before.
 	→ She was unhappier than ever before.
II. TOPIC: Write about a sporting event you saw recently.
	Last Sunday at our school football field, a friendly football match was held. Our school Female Students’ Football Team played against the neighboring school’s one.
	It was a really nice Sunday morning then. The football field where the match took place was previously well-decorated. Red flags could be seen along the roads from our school gate passing the school play-ground to the gym then to the football ground, together with numerous slogans, posters, and of course pictures of the two teams and individual players. Then came the most important moment of the day when the two teams entered the field from the changing rooms, following the two headmasters of the two schools, and the referees. Spectators all burst into applauses to welcome the players. As soon as the game began, spectators started cheering and shouting for one side or the other. Others sang and danced, some even called out the players’ names with love and pride. The crowd kept discussing and commentating happily. On the first half, our team played much better to score two goal to lead the guest. The football field seemed to be filled with applauses and bravos when the first and then the second goal were scored by the two different home strikers. The players of the two teams played so well that it made spectators forget the time as the referee blew his whistle to finish the first half. When the second half came the guest players played much better and scored a goal. The players still played enthusiastically but no more goal was scored. The match ended with the winning score of 2-1 for the home team.
	 It was a very happy weekend day for us all and it was, in my opinion, the best game I have ever watched. We all agreed that such sporting event brought us closer together, made us feel relaxed and we very much felt confident and proud of our school. 
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