Đề ôn thi môn Tiếng Anh - Thi thử THPT Quốc gia năm học 2015-2016 (Có đáp án)

KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA 20016
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài:90 phút
SECTION A. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following Questions.
Question 1: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you around the city.
A. confident 	B. Reluctant 	C. occupied 	D. free
Question 2: Now when so many frogs were killed, there were more and more insects.
A. lesser and lesser 	B. fewer and fewer 	C. less and less D. lesser and fewer
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.
 One of the most important (3).......of a standardized test is time. You'll only be allowed a certain number of minutes for each section, so it is very important that you use your time (4)...... . The most important time strategy is pacing yourself. Before you begin, take just a few seconds to survey the test, noting the (5)......of questions and the sections that looks easier than the rest. Then, make a rough time schedule based (6).......the amount of time available to you. Mark the halfway point on your test and make a note beside that mark of the time when the testing period is half over.
 Once you begin the test, continue moving. If you work slowly in an attempt to (7).......fewer mistakes, your mind will become bored and begin to wander. You'll end up with far (8).......mistakes if you're not concentrating. If you take too long to answer questions that stump you, you may end up (9).......out of time before you finish. So don't stop for difficult questions. Skip them and move on. You can come back to them later (10).......you have time. A question that takes you five seconds to answer counts as much as one that takes you several minutes, so pick up the easy points first. (11)......., answering the easier questions first helps build your confidence and gets you in the testing groove. If you're a little ahead, you know you're on track and may even have a little time left to check your work. If you're a little behind, you have several choices. You can pick up the pace a little, but do this only if you can do it (12)........
Question 3: A. issues 	B. information 	C. concern 	D. factors
Question 4: A. quickly 	B. fast 	C. wisely 	D. hardly
Question 5: A. lists 	B. numbers 	C. number 	D. deal
Question 6: A. from 	B. on 	C. in 	D. out
Question 7: A. make 	B. do 	C. take 	D. pay
Question 8: A. more 	B. away 	C. under 	D. from
Question 9: A. running 	B. cutting 	C. moving 	D. short
Question 10:A. how 	B. whether 	C. if 	D. unless
Question 11:A. Beside 	B. However 	C. Besides 	D. Therefore
Question 12:A. comfortable 	B. uncomfortable C. comfortably D. uncomfortably
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 13. (A) Publishing in the UK, the book (B) has won a number of awards (C) in recent regional (D) book fairs.
Question 14. The world is becoming more (A) industrialized and the number of animal (B) species that have become (C) extinct (D) have increased.
Question 15: Students in the United States often (A) support themselves by (B) babysitting, (C) working in restaurants, or they (D) drive taxicabs.
Question 16: (A) In safari parks, (B) which wild animals roam (C) freely, visitors are forbidden (D) to get out of their cars.
Question 17: Although the doctor may be able to (A) diagnose a problem (B) perfect, he still may not be (C) able to find a drug (D) to which the patient will respond.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 18: Make sure you........your assignment before you go to bed.
A. take 	B. have 	C. do 	D. make
Question 19: I shouldn’t.......so much coffee last night. I was wide awake till four in the morning.
A. have drank 	B. drink 	C. have drunk 	D. drank
Question 20: Cindy wanted to drive her best friend to have dinner at an Italian restaurant but her car couldn't start. Therefore, she had to borrow one from Nancy. 
Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
Cindy: "Would you mind lending me your car?" ~ Nancy: "......"
A. Yes. Here it is 	B. No, not at all 	C. Great 	D. Yes, let's
Question 21: He agreed with my opinion that we should not be fully satisfied......what he had.
A. with 	B. of 	C. from 	D. about
Question 22: I accidentally.....Mike when I was crossing a street downtown yesterday.
A. paid attention to 	B. lost touch with 	C. kept an eye on D. caught sight of
Question 23: It can be an amazing experience for those who have the.......to leave their family and friends and live in a new place.
A. encourage 	B. courage 	C. encouragement D. courageous
Question 24: “The inflation rate in Greece is five times.......my country,” he said.
A. more than 	B. as many as that in 	C. as high as that in 	D. as much as
Question 25: They’re staying with us.......until they can afford a house.
A. for the time being 	B. ahead of their time C. in time to 	D. out of time
Question 26: The young woman,....., was visibly very happy after the birth of her child.
A. she was tired 	B. despite tired 	 C. though tired D. tired although she was
Question 27: Jack went to a party, wearing a bow tie.
A. a lovely red woolen 	B. red lovely woolen 	
C. woolen red lovely 	D. lovely woolen red
Question 28. It took Ted a long time to get.....the breakup of his marriage.
A. across	B. over 	C. through 	D. along with 
Question 29. Can you find a place.....is suitable for all of us?
A. when	B. in which 	C. which 	D. where
Question 30. The Prime Minister congratulated the team.......winning the match.
A. on	B. in 	C. for 	D. into
Question 31: My teeth were a little yellow so I.......by the dentist.
A. was cleaned B. have them cleaned 	C. had cleaned them 	D. had them cleaned
Question 32: The house which was built more than ten years ago is now in bad condition, so it needs.....for the wedding taking place next month.
A. be decorated 	B. decorating 	C. decorate 	D. to decorate
Question 33: .....Paul realize that he was on the wrong flight.
A. No sooner had the plane taken off than 	
B. Only after the plane had taken off
C. It was not until the plane had taken off that 	
D. Not until the plane had taken off did
Question 34: Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah accepted. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
 Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight ?” ~ Sarah: “......”
A. That’s a great idea 	B. That’s acceptable
C. It’s kind of you to invite 	D. You are very welcome
Question 35: It’s only a small flat but it.....my needs perfectly.
A. settles 	B. fills 	C. meets 	D. supplies
Question 36: I wish you.....to the theatre last night, but you didn’t.
A. came 	B. was coming 	C. would come 	 D. had come
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each o f the questions.
 Why is it that flying to New York from London will leave you feeling less tired than flying to London from New York? The answer may be a clear case of biology not being able to keep up with technology. Deep inside the brain, there is a “clock” that governs every aspect of the body’functioning: sleep and wake cycles, levels of alertness, performance, mood, hormone levels digestion, body temperature and so on. It regulates all of these functions on a 24-hour basis and is called the circadian clock (from the Latin, circa “about” + dies “day”).
 This body clock programmes us to be sleepy twice a day, between 3-5 a.m. and again between 3-5 p.m. Afternoon tea and siesta times are all cultural responses to our natural biological sleepiness in the afternoon. One of the major causes of the travellers’ malady known as jet lag is the non-alignment of a person’s internal body clock with clocks in the external world.. Crossing different time zones confuses the circadian clock, which then has to adjust to the new time and patterns of light and activity. To make matters more complex, not all internal body functions adjust at the same rate. So your sleep or wake may adjust to a new time zone at one rate, while your temperature adjusts at different pace. Your digestion may be on a different schedule altogether.
 Though we live in a 24-hour day, the natural tendency of the body clock is to extend our day beyond 24 hours. It is contrary to our biological programming to shrink our day. That is why travelling in westward direction is more body-clock friendly than flying east. NASA studies of long haul pilot showed that westward travel was associated with significantly better sleep quantity and quality than eastward flights. When flying west, you are “extending” your day, thus travelling in the natural direction of your internal clock. Flying eastward will involve “shrinking” or reducing your day and is in direct opposition to your internal clock’s natural tendency.
 One of the more commmon complaints of travellers is that their sleep becomes disrupted. There are many reasons for this: Changing time zones and schedules, changing light and activity levels, try to sleep when your body clock is programmed to be awake, disruption of the internal circadian clock and working longer hours. Sleep loss, jet lag and fatigue can seriously affect our ability to function well. Judgment and decision-making can be reduced by 50%, attention by 75 percent, memory by 20 percent and communication by 30 percent. It is often suggested that you adjust your watch as soon as you board a plane, supposedly to try to help you adjust to your destination’s schedule as soon as you arrive. But it can take the body clock several days to several weeks to fully adjust to a new time zone.
Question 37: The main function of the body clock is to.... .
A. regulate the body’s functions 	B. govern all the body’s responses
C. help us sleep 	D. help us adapt to a 24-hour cycle
Question 38: The word “It” in the first paragraph refers to......
A. the body clock 	B. the programme 	C. the brain 	D. the function
Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about “jet lag”?
A. It makes our body clock operate badly. B. It extends the hours of our body clock.
C. It causes our body clock to change. 	 D. It upsets our body’s rhythms.
Question 40: The word “malady” is closest in meaning to......
A. thought 	B. feeling 	 C. illness 	D. bore
Question 41: The direction you fly in......
A. alters your body’s natural rhythms 	B. helps you sleep better
C. affects the degree of jet lag 	D. extends or shrinks your body clock
Question 42: According to the article,......
A. travelers complain about the negative effects of flying
B. jet lag can affect different abilities differently
C. various factors stop us sleeping when we fly
D. flying seriously affects your judgment and decision-making
Question 43: On the subject of avoiding jet lag the article......
A. proposes gradually adjusting your body clock	
B. suggests changing the time on your watc
C. says there is nothing you can do 	
D. makes no suggestions
Question 44: According to the author, which of the following reasons disrupt travellers’ sleep?
A. Travelers fly in the natural direction of their internal clock.
B. Travellers’ attention is reduced by 75 percent.
C. The traveler’s internal circadian clock has to adjust to patterns of light and activity.
D. Travelers try to sleep between 3-5 p.m.
Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that......
A. travelers have to spend more money flying westward than eastward
B. travelers do not sleep as well in eastward flights as in westward ones
C. there are more travelers in westward flights than in eastward ones
D. westward travelers become friendlier than eastward ones
Question 46: The word “fatigue” is closest in meaning to......
A. exhaustion 	B. sleeplessness 	C. obsession 	D. frustration
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position ofprimary stress in each o f the following questions.
Question 47: A. statistical 	B. electronic 	C. initiative 	D. civilian
Question 48: A. campaign 	B. respond 	C. profound 	D. program
Question 49: A. informality 	B. entertainment C. situation 	D. appropriate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
 Pre-historic horses were far removed from the horses that Christopher Columbus brought on his ships during his second voyage to the New World. Although fossil remains of “dawn horses” have been excavated in several sites in Wyoming and New Mexico, these animals, which were biologically different from contemporary horses, had been extinct several millennia before onset of the Indian era. Although movie goers visualize an Indian as a horse rider, Indians were not familiar with horses until the Spanish brought them to Mexico, New Mexico, Florida, and the West Indies in 1519. Those that escaped from the conquerors or were left behind became the ancestors of the wild horses that still roam the southwestern regions of the country. The Indian tribe scattered in the western plains began to breed horse about 1600.
 The arrival of the horse produced a ripple effect throughout the Great Plains as the Indians living there were not nomadic and engaged in rudimentary farming and grazing land hunting. Trackiing stampeding herds of buffalo and elk on foot was not the best way to stock quantities of meat to adequately feed the entire tribe during the winter. However, mounted on horses, the hunting team could cover ground within a substantial distance from their camps and transport their game back be roasted, dried into jerky, or smoke for preservation. The hunters responsible for tribe provisions stayed on the move almost continuously, replacing their earth-and-sod lodges with tepees. Horses carried not only their riders but also their possessions and booty. The Blackfoot Indians of Canadian plains turned almost exclusive hunters, and the Crow split off from the mainstream Indian farming in favour of hunting. In fact, some of the Apache splinter groups abandoned agricultural cultivation altogether.
 The horse also drastically altered Indian warfare by allowing rapid maneuvering before, during, and after skirmishes. With the advent of the horse, the Apache, Arapahoe, and Cheyenne established themselves as territorial monopoly in the Plains. Because Indians did not have the wheel and had dragged their belongings from one settlement to another, horses also enabled them to become more mobile and expedient during tribal migration. In fact, the Cheyenne abolished the custom of discarding belongings and tepee skins simply because there were no means to transport them.
Question 50: The word “excavated” is closest in meaning to......
A. hunted down 	B. extinguished 	 C. exasperated 	 D. dug up
Question 51: According to the passage, how many genetic species of horses are known today?
A. Two. 	B. Four. 	 C. Three. 	D. One.
Question 52: The word “Those” in the first paragraph refers to.... .
A. The Spanish 	B. West Indies 	 C. Indians 	D. Horses
Question 53: According to the passage, American Indians......
A. tamed horses in the early 1500s 	B. farmed with horses in the 1500s
C. have ridden horses since prehistoric times 	D. were exposed to horses in the 1500s
Question 54: The author of the passage probably believes that the popular image of American Indians before the arrival of Europeans......
A. is not theoretically viable 	B. cannot be realistically described
C. cannot be discussed briefly 	D. is not historically accurate
Question 55: According to the passage, after the arrival of Europeans, the Indian tribes inhabiting the Great Plains......
A. herded undomesticated buffalo 	B. improved their hunting techniques
C. had sedentary and tranquil life-styles 	D. played communicated hunting games
Question 56: The word “provisions” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to......
A. weapons 	B. attire 	C. health 	D. supplies
Question 57: According to the passage, American Indians invented various methods for......
A. keeping their possessions 	B. communicating over great distances
B. conducting their hostile excursions 	D. dislocating their traps
Question 58. It can be inferred from the passage that Indians did NOT......
A. use covered wagons 	B. accrue tribal wealth
C. pursue stampedes 	D. assign sustenance tasks
Question 59. It can be inferred from the passage that the arrival of horses in the Americas......
A. made the Indian tribes relinquish their territorial monopolies
B. altered the future course of the Indian way of life
C. led to the dispersal of the Indian tribes throughout the continent
D. shattered the advancement of the Indian culture
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 60: The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer.
A. expect more 	B. do better 	C. speed 	D. treat better
Question 61: Peter didn’t mean to be disrepsectful to his teacher. He just couldn’t control his temper.
A. showing lack of attention 	B. showing impolite behaviour
C. showing lack of trust 	D. showing nervousness
Question 62: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. express interest to 	B. be interested in 	C. be related to 	D. pay all attention to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each o f the following questions.
Question 63: A. clear 	B. hear 	C. near 	D. bear
Question 64: A. weighed B. laughed 	C. missed 	D. helped
SECTION B. 
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 65: He tried to study hard. However, he didn’t get high marks.
 No matter.......................................................................
Question 66: Without your help, I couldn’t have overcome the problem.
 Had it..........................................................................
Question 67: “It certainly wasn’t me who took your car!” Bob said to me.
 Bob denied......................................................................
Question 68: My mother is the most warm-hearted person I’ve ever known.
 I have never.....................................................................
Question 69: “If I were you, I’d look for another job,” he said to me.
 He suggested....................................................................
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about what you can do to make the environment in your neighbourhood cleaner and greener.
 The following prompts might be helpful to you.
 - Growing trees
 - Cleaning up garbage
 - Avoiding pollution
The End
ĐÁP ÁN
 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. A
 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. D
15. D 16. B 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. B 21. A
22. D 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. C 27. A 28. B
29. C 30. A 31. D 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. C
36. D 37. A 38. A 39. D 40. C 41. C 42. B
43. D 44. C 45. B 46. A 47. B 48. D 49. D
50. D 51. A 52. D 53. D 54. D 55. B 56. D
57. B 58. A 59. B 60. B 61. B 62. D 63. D 
 64. A
SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION.
Question 65: No matter how hard he tried, he didn’t get high marks.
Question 66: Had it not been for your help, I couldn’t have overcome the problem.
Question 67: Bob denied having taken/taking my car.
Question 68: I have never known a more warm-hearted person than my mother.
Question 69: He suggested that I (should) look for another job.
SAMPLE PARAGRAPH
 A green and clean environment is always good to people’s mental and physical health; therefore, we should do something to make it worth our living. First, we should organize a regular neighbourhood cleanup by publicizing it – by distributing flyers to inform everyone about the date, time and other specific information, and have announcements made at local churches, organizations, youth groups and club meetings to recruit volunteers. Second, it is advisable to send out a press release to local media outlets to gain additional exposure or funds. Third, to make the most of the cleanup, it is good to divide our neighbourhood into sections, determine the size of volunteer teams for each area and assign a leader for each team, and have the proper cleanup equipment, such as rakes, brooms, shovels, water hozes and heavy gloves. Fourth, every inhabiting site should be enlivend with plants and/or flower gardens. Last but not least, remember to have the service clear the dump site of household garbage every day and ban burning organic rubbish. With what we can do, our neighbourhood may be a safe and clean place to live in. [187 words]