Bài thi môn Tiếng Anh - Kiểm tra chất lượng ôn thi THPT Quốc gia năm học 2015-2016 - Đề số 1 - Đỗ Bình

MR. BEAN’S MATERIALS
(Đề thi có 6 trang) 
ĐỀ KTCL ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8 điểm)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. how	B. know	C. town	D. brown
Question 2: A. cough	B. rough 	C. laugh 	D. although
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. comfort	B. nation	C. apply	D. moment
Question 4: A. evaluate	B. favorable	C. convenient	D. relationship
Question 5: A. accurate	B. customer	C. computer	D. exercise
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 6: Prior to his appointment as secretary of state, Henry Kissinger was a professor of government and international affairs at Harvard.
A. Instead of	B. Before	C. During	D. After
Question 7: When the protestor entered the meeting clad only in a beach towel, the audience was dumbfounded.  
A. speechless	B. excited	C. content	D. applauding
Question 8: Married couples can get a divorce if they find they are not compatible.
A. able to budget the money	B. capable of having children
C. capable of living harmoniously	D. able to share an apartment or a house
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9: My parents always disapproved of my smoking. They even told me once it would stop me growing taller.
A. objected to	B. supported	C. denied	D. refused
Question 10: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest.
A. hungry 	B. rich 	C. poor 	D. full
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 11: Before television became popular, people used to entertain each other in the evening 
 A B C
by playing games, and saying stories.
 D
Question 12: My father is very busy with his business; therefore , he is always willing to give 
 A B	 C
a hand with the housework. 
 D
Question 13: I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in the end.
 	 A B C D
Question 14: The first important requirements for you to become a mountain climber are your 
 A B C 
strong passion and you have good health.
 D 
Question 15: Hardly did he enter the room when all the lights went out.
 A B C D 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 16: ___________ TV for the last four hours? Turn it off and get some exercise.
A. Do you watch	B. Are you watching
	C. Did you watch	D. Have you been watching
Question 17: He is wearing a gold ring on his fourth finger. He must___________.
	A. have been married B. be married	C. marry	D. have married
Question 18: It can be an amazing experience for those who have the___________ to leave their family and friend and live in a new place.
	A. courage	B. courageous	C. encourage	D. encouragement
Question 19: It should be easy for Peter to find more time to spend with his children___________ he no longer has to work in the evenings and on weekends.
	A. even though	B. but 	C. now that	D. due to
Question 20: __________ man suffering from__________ shock should not be given anything to drink.
	A. A/ the	B. The/ a	C. Ø/ a	D. A/ Ø
Question 21: Scarcely had he stepped out of the room__________ he heard a loud laughter within.
	A. until	B. when	C. than	D. then
Question 22: Daisy’s marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man___________.
	A. she hardly knows him 	B. whom she hardly know 	
	C. she hardly knows 	D. that she hardly know
Question 23: During our stay in Venice, we bought a___________ bottle.
A. glass lovely perfume 	B. lovely glass perfume 
C. lovely perfume glass 	D. glass perfume lovely
Question 24: If it ___________ a trouble, I’d love to have a cup of coffee.
A. hadn’t been	B. isn’t	C. wasn’t	D. weren’t
Question 25: The villagers strongly recommend that a new school___________ immediately.
A. must be built	B. is going to be built	C. be built	D. will be built
Question 26: He’ll be very upset if you___________ his offer of help.
A. turn away 	B. turn from 	C. turn down 	D. turn against
Question 27: ___________ my personal qualities, I have experience of working in a multi-national company for three years. 
A. Beside           	B. In addition           	C. Instead of     	D. Apart from
Question 28: Although________ satisfied with the contract, the officials hesitatingly agreed to sign it.
A. complete	 	B. completed 	 	C. completion	D. completely
Question 29: While talking with native English speakers, we can take___________ a lot of new words and structures.
A. on	B. up	C. in	D. over 
Question 30:__________, they decided not to go to Australia for their holidays but went to America instead.
A. At the end	B. At least	C. In the end	D. In the least
Question 31: In many families the important decisions are_________ by women.
A. done	 	B. arrived	 	C. made	D. given
Question 32: Albert Einstein’s contributions to scientific theory_________ those of Galileo and Newton.
A. was important than	B. were more important	
C. was the most important	D. were as important as
Question 33: Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah accepted.
- Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight?” 	–Sarah: “___________.”
A. That’s a great idea	B. That’s acceptable
C. You are very welcome	D. It’s kind of you to invite
Question 34: Cindy wanted to drive her best friend to have dinner at an Italian restaurant but her car couldn't start. Therefore, she had to borrow one from Nancy. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- Cindy: "Would you mind lending me your car?"	- Nancy: " _______________."
A. Yes. Here it is 	B. Yes, let's	C. Great	D. No, not at all
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
It is hard to think of a world without gas or electricity. Both are commonly used for lighting and heating today. We now can instantly flick a lighter or strike a match to make a flame. But it was not long ago that there were no such things as matches or lighters. To make fire, it was necessary to strike a piece of iron on flint for sparks to ignite some tinder. If the tinder was damp, or the flint old, you had to borrow some fire from a neighbor. We do not know exactly when or how people first used fire. Perhaps, many ages ago, they found that sticks would burn if they were dropped into some hole where melted lava from a volcano lay boiling. They brought the lighted sticks back to make their fire in a cave. Or, they may have seen trees catch fire through being struck by lightning, and used the trees to start their own fires.
Gradually people learned they could start a fire without traveling far to find flames. They rubbed two pieces of wood together. This method was used for thousands of years. When people became used to making fires with which to cook food and stay warm at night, they found that certain resins or gums from trees burnt longer and brighter. They melted resins and dipped branches in the liquid to make torches that lit their homes at night. Iron stands in which torches used to be fixed can still be seen in old buildings of Europe. There was no lighting in city streets until gas lamps, and then electric lamps were installed. Boys ran about London at night carrying torches of burning material. They were called torch boys, or link boys, and earned a living by guiding visitors to friends’ houses at night. For centuries homes were lit by candles until oil was found. Even then, oil lamps were no more effective than a cluster of candles. We read about the splendors and marvels of ancient palaces and castles, but we forget that they must have been gloomy and murky places at night.
Question 35: The word “lighter” in the passage mostly means__________.
A. a device that uses electricity, oil or gas to produce light
B. a small device that produces a flame for lighting cigarettes, etc.
C. the energy from the sun, a lamp, etc. that makes it possible to see things
D. a hot bright stream of burning gas that comes from something that is on fire
Question 36: To make a fire in times just before the advent of matches, it was essential to have access to__________.
A. a burning fire or to possess flint 	B. a burning fire or to possess iron
C. flint, iron and dry tinder 	D. a magnifying glass
Question 37: The first fire used by people was probably obtained__________.
A. from the sun’s heat through glass 	B. by rubbing wood together
C. from heat or fire caused by nature 	D. by striking iron against flint
Question 38: Torches for lighting were made from__________.
A. the wood of gum trees 	B. iron bars dipped in melted resins
C. wooden poles dipped in oil 	D. tree branches dipped in melted resins
Question 39: Before the electric lamp was invented__________.
A. oil lamps and then candles were used	
B. candles and oil lamps appeared about the same time
C. candles and then oil lamps were used	
D. people did not use any form of lighting in their houses
Question 40: The word “splendors” in the passage mostly means__________.
A. wonderful things that have been achieved	 	
B. places where a lot of people go on holiday
C. things that fill one with surprise and admiration 
D. the beautiful and impressive features of a place
Question 41: Which sentence is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. We know exactly when and how people first used fire.
B. A world is impossible without gas or electricity.
C. We can make a fire by striking a piece of iron on flint to ignite some tinder.
D. Matches and lighters were invented not long ago.
Question 42: The word “gloomy” in the passage mostly means__________.
A. totally covered with darkness 	B. badly lit in a way that makes one feel sad
C. containing a lot of white 	D. full of light; having the natural light of day
Question 43: What form of street lighting was used in London when link boys used to work there?
A. Gas lighting. 	B. No lighting at all. 	C. Electric lighting. 	D. Oil lighting.
Question 44: The best title for the passage could be__________.
A. Prehistoric People and Fire 	B. Fire: Discovery and Uses
C. Different Types of Lamps 	D. The Advantages of Candles
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
You will make the interview process easier for the employer if you prepare relevant information about yourself. Think about how you want to present your (45)__________, experiences, education, work style, skills, and goals. Be prepared to supplement all your answers with examples that support the statements you make. It is also a good idea to review your résumé with a critical eye and (46)__________ areas that an employer might see as limitations or want further information. Think about how you can answer difficult questions (47)__________ and positively, while keeping each answer brief.
An interview gives the employer a (48)__________ to get to know you. While you do want to market yourself to the employer, answer each question with an honest (49)__________. Never say anything negative about past experiences, employers, or courses and professors. Always think of something positive about an experience and talk about that. You should also be (50)__________. If you are genuinely interested (51)__________ the job, let the interviewer know that.
	 One of the best ways to show you are keen on a job is to demonstrate that you have researched the organization prior to the interview. You can also (52)__________ interest by asking questions about the job, the organization, and its services and products. The best way to impress an employer is to ask questions that build upon your interview discussion. This shows you are interested and (53)__________ close attention to the interviewer. It is a good idea to prepare a few questions in advance, but an insightful comment based on your conversation can make an even stronger statement. At the (54)__________ of an interview, it is appropriate for you to ask when you may expect to hear from the employer.
Question 45: A. practices	B. strengths	C. pressures	D. promotions
Question 46: A. hide	B. limit	C. identify	D. express
Question 47: A. sharply	B. accurately	C. hardly	D. rightly
Question 48: A. change	B. chance	C. practice	D. way
Question 49: A. expression	B. ability	C. response	D. respect
Question 50: A. enthusiast	B. enthusiastic	C. enthusiastically	D. enthusiasm
Question 51: A. with	B. on	C. for	D. in
Question 52: A. show	B. appear	C. conceal	D. cover
Question 53: A. make	B. spend	C. pay	D. choose
Question 54: A. finish	B. final	C. close	D. end
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able to adapt. Food Resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the death of a species.
 The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time – a mass extinction. One of the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago. When approximately 95 percent of all species died, mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction. 
 One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the Earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.
Question 55: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to__________. 
A. environment	B. species	C. extinction	D. 99 percent
Question 56: The word “ultimately” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to__________.
A. exceptionally	B. dramatically	C. eventually	D. unfortunately
Question 57: What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history?
A. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms.
B. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
C. They have caused rapid change in the environment.
D. They are no longer in existence.
Question 58: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change?
A. Temperature changes	B. Availability of food resources
C. Introduction of new species	D. Competition among species
Question 59: The word “demise” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to__________. 
A. change 	B. recovery 	C. help	D. death
Question 60: Why is “plankton” mentioned in the second paragraph?
A. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species
B. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction.
C. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in
 the ocean
D. To point out that certain species could never become extinct.
Question 61: According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that__________. 
A. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history.
B. extinctions on Earth have generally been massive
C. there has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history.
D. dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed.
Question 62: The word “finding” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to__________. 
A. published information	B. research method 
C. ongoing experiment	D. scientific discovery
Question 63: Which of the followings can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in paragraph 3? 
A. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it 
B. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found.
C. The theory is no longer seriously considered.
D. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate.
Question 64: In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’ survival?
A. It reflects the interrelationship of many species.
B. It may depend on chance events.
C. It does not vary greatly from species to species
D. It is associated with astronomical conditions.
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (2 điểm)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 1: It is said that he escaped to a neutral country.
→ He________________________________________________________________________.
Question 2: Although he was very tired, he agreed to play tennis.
→ Tired_____________________________________________________________________.
Question 3: You have done really well to pass your driving test so quickly.
→ She congratulated______________________________________________________.
Question 4: I regret not going to airport to say goodbye her.
→ I wish____________________________________________________________________.
Question 5: As he grew older, he became more and more forgetful.
→ The_______________________________________________________________________.
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the best holiday you have ever had.
You should base on the following suggestions:
- When and where you had it.
- How you reached there.
- What you did and with whom.
- Explain why it’s special.
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